重庆市渝高中学教育集团2024—2025学年（上）
八年级半期教育质量监测英语试题卷
（全卷共12页，九个大题，满分150分，考试时间120分钟）
第Ⅰ卷（共95分）
Ⅰ. 听力测试。（共30分）
第一节：情景反应。（每小题1.5分，共9分）
听一遍， 根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语；并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1. A. Wonderful. B. Yes, I did. C. None.
2 A. I bought nothing. B. I help with housework. C. I have longer hair.
3. A. Sorry. B. Good luck. C. No problem.
4. A. Tara. B. Hard-working. C. Two.
5. A. My father. B. On Saturday. C. Of course.
6. A. In Shanghai. B. As a pilot. C. Not really.
第二节：对话理解。（每小题1.5分，共9分）
听一遍，根据你所听到的对话和问题；从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
7. A. Sometimes. B. Hardly ever. C. Every day.
8. A. He loves them. B. He doesn’t mind. C. He can’t stand them.
9. A. Tina. B. Tina’s mother. C. Tina’s father.
10. A. A cook. B. A doctor. C. A scientist.
11. A. Town Cinema. B. Screen City. C. Movie World.
12. A.12 years old. B.14 years old. C.16 years old.
第三节：长对话理解。（每小题1.5分，共6分）
听两遍，根据你所听到的长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
听第一段长对话，回答第13和14小题。
13. Where did Tina go on vacation
A. Hong Kong. B. Chongqing. C. Beijing.
14. Why did Tina’s brother like the fun park better
A. Because it made him learn a lot. B. Because it was really exciting.
C. C. Because it had delicious food.
听第二段长对话，回答第15和16小题。
15. What does Mary want to do at first
A. She wants to watch a movie. B. She wants to go shopping.
C. She wants to play a game.
16. What do the speakers decide to do in the end
A. To watch a talk show. B. To watch a movie. C. To watch a game show.
第四节：短文理解。（每小题1.5分，共6分）
听两遍，根据你所听到的短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
17. There were ______ performances (表演) in the talent show.
A. three B. five C. eight
18. The speaker felt ______ when listening to the song.
A. bored and sad B. happy and excited C. quiet and relaxed
19. The speaker liked ______ best.
A. the song B. the story C. the basketball show
20. The speaker thinks talent shows are a great way for people to ______.
A. become famous B. show themselves C. win prizes
Ⅱ. 语法选择。（每小题1分，共10分）
根据短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出一个语法正确的答案。
Tom and Mike are brothers. They look very similar 21 each other, and many people often take them as twins. However, they are 22 in some ways. Mike is three years older than Tom. Sometimes they are kind to each other, 23 sometimes they are not. That’s 24 their parents often got angry with them.
One day the brothers went out for 25 walk together. At noon, both of them were very hungry. But they had no idea what to eat. Finally, they decided 26 a Chinese restaurant. When they 27 into it, the waiter came up to them and asked, “What can I do for you ” “Please bring us two apples first,” said Tom. When the waiter put two apples on the table, Mike took the 28 one at once. Tom got angry, “You are impolite (没礼貌的). Why don’t you take the smaller one ” Tom asked. “But I am right,” said Mike with a smile, “If I let you take first, which one of the two apples will you choose ” “Of course I’ll take the smaller one. I am 29 polite,” said Tom. “Yes”. Mike asked, “If you take the smaller one, the bigger one will be 30 . Don’t you think so ” “Oh...” Tom couldn’t answer.
21. A. to B. with C. from
22. A. differences B. different C. differently
23. A. and B. but C. because
24. A. why B. how C. because
25. A. a B. an C. the
26. A. try B. trying C. to try
27. A. walk B. walked C. are walking
28. A. big B. bigger C. biggest
29. A. never B. always C. hardly ever
30. A. me B. my C. mine
Ⅲ. 完型填空。（每小题1.5分，共15分）
根据短文内容，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能正确填入相应空格内的最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
An old man went to a doctor to ask some questions about his wife’s hearing. He was worried that she was going deaf (聋的), as she seemed to be having a 31 time hearing the old man speak. The doctor asked him to have a test to 32 how bad her hearing was.
“Stand far behind her and ask her a question. If she doesn’t answer, move a little 33 and ask again. Keep doing this until you can find out how far away she can hear 34 .” The doctor said, “ 35 she can’t hear you until you are quite close, she might have a hearing problem.” The old man was so happy to finally solve (解决) the problem.
In the evening, the old man arrived home. He saw his wife was 36 . While standing about 15 meters away from her, he asked, “What’s for dinner, dear ” But his wife didn’t answer.
Then he stood about 10 meters away 37 her. He asked her again, but she 38 did not answer. He did the same thing for 39 two times. But he got no answer again. At last, the distance is only 1 meter. He asked at the top of his voice.
His wife answered 40 , “Why did you ask me so many times I told you that we’re having noodles for dinner!”
31. A. easy B. good C. hard D. free
32. A. find B. find out C. look at D. look for
33. A. farther B. closer C. faster D. slower
34. A. her B. herself C. you D. yourself
35. A. Because B. Although C. If D. So
36. A. cooking B. exercising C. drawing D. sleeping
37. A. in B. from C. to D. for
38. A. still B. also C. hardly D. again
39. A. the other B. another C. other D. others
40. A. excitedly B. happily C. angrily D. carefully
Ⅳ. 阅读理解。（41—43小题，每小题1分；44—59小题，每小题2分，共35分）
阅读下列材料，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
Huafu Fruit Store Opening Hours: 9:00 a. m. ~ 8:30 p. m. Bananas: (1 kilo (公斤) ) 10.00 Apples: (1 kilo) 7.60 Pears: (1 kilo) 3.20 Strawberries: (1 kilo) 8.40 Quality: Very fresh Service: Good Shuxiang Fruit Store Opening Hours: 9:00 a. m. ~ 7:00 p. m. Bananas: (1 kilo) 10.40 Apples: (1 kilo) 7.80 Pears: (1 kilo) 3.60 Strawberries: (1 kilo) 8.80 Quality: Very fresh Service: OK
Renhe Fruit Store Opening Hours: 8:30a. m. ~ 7:30 p. m. Bananas: (1 kilo) 8.58 Apples: (1 kilo) 6.60 Pears: (1 kilo) 3.36 Strawberries: (1 kilo) 9.00 Quality: Not fresh Service: Good Huanghua Fruit Store Opening Hours: 8:30 a. m. ~ 8:30 p. m. Bananas: (1 kilo) 10.00 Apples: (1 kilo) 7.20 Pears: (1 kilo) 3.40 Strawberries: (1 kilo) 8.00 Quality: Not bad Service: Bad
41. ______ closes at 7:00 p. m.
A. Huafu Fruit Store B. Shuxiang Fruit Store
C. Renhe Fruit Store D. Huanghua Fruit Store
42. ______ are the cheapest of the four kinds of fruits at Huafu Fruit Store.
A. Bananas B. Apples C. Pears D. Strawberries
43. If Xiao Ming buys a kilo of apples at Huanghua Fruit Store, he should pay ______.
A. 7.60 B. 7.80 C. 6.60 D. 7.20
B
Mr. Smith works in an office. He’s very busy and has no time to have a good rest. Every evening, when he comes back from his office, he’s always tired and wants to go to bed early. But his wife often has a lot of interesting things to tell him after dinner. She doesn’t stop talking before she goes to sleep.
One day the man felt terrible and couldn’t go to work. He decided to go to see a doctor. And Mrs. Smith went to the hospital with him. Before her husband asked the doctor what was wrong with him, the woman told the doctor all and the doctor understood why. He wrote out a prescription (处方). And when Mrs. Smith brought the medicine (药物) to the doctor, the doctor said to her, “The bottle of medicine is for your husband and the sleeping pills (药片) are for you.” “For me ” the woman said in surprise “I’m fine. I don’t need any medicine!” “I don’t think so, madam”, said the doctor. “They are sleeping pills. Your husband will soon be all right if you take them.”
44. Mr. Smith work ______.
A. in a school B. in a hospital C. in a shop D. in an office
45. When Mr. Smith comes back home, he always ______.
A. goes to see a doctor B. stays up late to work
C. wants to go to bed early D. tells Mrs. Smith many interesting things
46. Which of the following is TRUE about Mr. Smith
A. Mr. Smith doesn’t stop talking before going to bed.
B. Mr. Smith is very busy, so he doesn’t have time to relax.
C. The doctor gave the sleeping pills to Mr. Smith to help him sleep well.
D. Mr. Smith can have a good sleep every day.
47. In fact, Mr. Smith will soon be all right if ______.
A. Mr. Smith stops working late B. Mr. Smith takes the sleeping pills
C. Mrs. Smith takes the bottle of medicine D. Mrs. Smith stops talking too much at night
C
One day an old lady was in a shop. She saw a beautiful teacup. She took it up and said to herself, “What a beautiful teacup! I love it.” Suddenly the teacup spoke, “Thank you, Lady. But I was just some clay (陶土) a few days ago. Would you like to listen to my story ” The old lady was in a surprise, but she soon answered: “Oh, I’d love to; dear! Go ahead.”
“A few days ago, I was red and I was clay. An old man took me and patted (拍打) me over and over and I shouted, ‘Let me alone.’ but he only smiled, ‘Not yet’.”
“Then he put me on a wheel and spun (旋转) me around and around. ‘Stop it! I’ m getting dizzy!’ I cried. But the old man only said, ‘Not yet’.”
“Then he put me in the oven (炉子). It was too hot. I wanted to know why he wanted to burn me, and I knocked at the door and shouted. I could hear him saying the same word.”
“Then I knew there wasn’t any hope. I was ready to give up. But the door opened and he took me out and let me cool down. He placed me in front of a mirror and said, ‘Look at yourself.’ And I did. I said, ‘That couldn’t be me. It’s beautiful. I’m beautiful.”
“Then the old man said, I know it hurt to be patted. It made you dizzy to spin around on the wheel. It was extremely hot to be in the oven. If I didn’t do those things, you wouldn’t be such a beautiful teacup as you are now.”
48. The teacup was only some ______a few days ago.
A. clay B. glass C. sand D. plastic
49. The underlined word dizzy in the third paragraph probably means ______.
A. 兴奋 B. 眩晕 C. 好奇 D. 疑惑
50. According to the story, ______ shows how the old man made the teacup.
a. Take it out and cool it down. b. Pat it over and over again.
c. Put it in an oven and burn it. d. Put it on a wheel and spin it.
A. b-d-a-c B. b-d-c-a C. d-b-a-c D. d-b-c-a
51. According to this story, the writer wants us to understand that ______.
A. no pains, no gains B. never too old to learn
C. love me, love my dog D. practice makes perfect
D
Do you feel lonely (孤独的) when your best friend isn’t around Here is our advice to you and to all kids who feel lonely sometimes.
It’s hard when a best friend isn’t around. You may feel left out at break or lunchtime — maybe because your best friend moved to a different school or a different class. You want to have new friends, but how do you make them Maybe it seems like everybody else already has his or her friends. But remember, there’s always room for more friends and we can all have more friends.
First, ▲ . Look for chances (机会) to say “Hi” to them, smile, and be friendly. Offer to share something or tell your appreciation (欣赏) to them. Second, invite someone you want to play with and say “Do you want to sit here ” in the lunchroom. When you’re at break (在课间), walk over to the kids you want to play with, be friendly, and say “Hi, can I play, too ” or just join in.
If you have trouble doing this or if you feel shy, ask your teacher to help you make new friends. Teachers are usually good at matching up friends. The best way to make friends is to be a friend. Be kind, be friendly, share, say nice things, offer to help — and pretty soon, you’ll have one, or two, or even more new friends.
You might still miss that special best friend. But when you see each other, you can share something you didn’t have before he or she left. You can introduce him or her to your new friends!
52. Some kids feel lonely sometimes because they ______.
A. have trouble with their studies B. don’t have their best friends around
C. need their parents to be with them D. are too young to look after themselves
53. Which of the following sentences can be put in the ▲
A. think about which kids you want to play with at break
B. find out the kids who don’t want to make friends with you
C. be friendly to all the students in your class and make friends with them
D. don’t do anything and wait for your classmates to say hi to you
54. The underlined word “this” in Paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. sharing your ideas B. talking in front of many people
C. studying better at school D. making new friends
55. The passage may come from ______ column (专栏) of the magazine.
A. science B. art C. sports D. friendship
E
Imagine you are in Africa. Suddenly, a group of spots moves past you quickly. What was it It may be a cheetah (猎豹), the fastest animal on land. It can run up to 70 miles every hour, which is faster than most cars moving on the highway!
The cheetah is famous for its speed (速度). A cheetah has long legs and spring-like backbone that help it run fast. It can jump as fast as 20 feet in one leap! Although the cheetah can run fast, it can not run for a long time. It uses its energy quickly and becomes tired. If the cheetah can not catch its food quickly, it will have to rest (休息) for a while before trying again.
A cheetah is also a great hunter (狩猎者). A cheetah’s coat is useful. Its coat is light brown with black spots (斑点). It helps it to hide (隐藏) in the tall brown grass in Africa. Other animals do not see it hiding, so a cheetah can get close to rabbits, birds, and other animals quietly. Besides, it has sharp eyesight. A cheetah can see other animals far away. Good eyesight helps the cheetah find other animals easily.
Today the cheetah is in danger. Parts of Africa are being turned into farms. This change forces the cheetah to find new places to live, which is not always easy. Cheetahs are also being hunted by other animals such as lions and hyenas. Luckily, zookeepers and wildlife experts are trying to save the cheetah. Maybe with their help, cheetah will grow larger in number.
56. What helps a cheetah to be a great hunter
A. The useful coat and sharp eyesight. B. Long legs and spring-like backbone.
C. Lions and hyenas. D. Zookeepers and wildlife experts.
57. Read this chart (图表):
When: Then:
Cheetah uses their energy very quickly and becomes tired. → Cheetahs have to rest for a while if they do not catch their food.
Lions and hyenas hunt cheetahs. →
The chart shows some information about this passage. Which can be put in ______
A. Cheetah hide in the tall brown grass. B. People in Africa hunt lions and hyenas.
C. Wildlife experts try to help cheetahs. D. The number of cheetahs becomes bigger.
58. What’s the structure of this passage
A. ①/②③/④ B. ①/②③④ C. ①②/③④ D. ①②③/④
59. Why is “Speedy and Spotty” a good title for the article
A. Because it catches the reader’s attention.
B. Because it gives the names of two cheetahs.
C. Because it explains why a cheetah can run fast.
D. Because it describes two facts about cheetah, its speed and spots.
Ⅴ. 口语应用。（每小题1分，共5分）
A: Hello. Tara. Where did you go last weekend
B: Hi, Bill. I went to Beijing.
A: 60.______
B: Oh, it’s fantastic!
A: What’s your favorite place in Beijing
B: 61.______
A: Cool! It’s a great one, isn’t it
B: Of course! It has a longer history than many other museums. 62.______
A: What other places did you visit
B: My elder brother loved the Great Wall. II e said it is one of the longest walls all over the world.
A: Wow I see. You really enjoyed yourself there. The winter vacation is coming. Where are you going to spend your vacation
B: 63.______ It’s up to my parents.
A: 64.______ We are going to Hainan, and it’s so warm there.
B: Sounds like a good idea. I will talk with my parents.
A. Would you like to have a vacation with my family B. So I could see many old things in the past there. C. I’m going to visit Beijing again. D. How do you feel about it E. Well, I’m not sure. F. I like the Palace Museum best. G. Do you think it is wonderful
第Ⅱ卷（共55分）
Ⅵ. 任务型阅读。（65—67题，每小题2分，68小题3分，共9分）根据短文内容回答问题。
Michelle Yeoh Choo Kheng, (born on 6 August 1962) is a Malaysian actress. She became famous in the 1990s. She played in a series of Hong Kong action films, such as Crouching Tiger, Hidden Dragon and Yes, Madam.
Academy Awards (奥斯卡金像奖) On March 12, 2023, Michelle Yeoh, at the age of 60, made history by winning the Oscar for lead actress, the first Asian woman ever to win the award.
Her acceptance speech (获奖感言) For all the little boys and girls who look like me watching tonight, this is a beacon (灯塔) of hope and possibilities. This is proof (证明) that dreams dream big and dreams do come true, and ladies, don’t let anybody tell you that you are ever past your best time. Never give up! I wouldn’t be standing here tonight without Daniels, without A24, without my amazing cast and crew (剧组), without everyone who was involved with Everything Everywhere All At Once. And also I want to say thanks to my extended family, in Hong Kong, where I started my career. Thank you for letting me stand on your shoulders, giving me a leg up so that I could be here today. Finally, I have to dedicate (献给) this to my mom, all the moms in the world, because they are really the superheroes, and without them none of us would be here tonight. To my mom who’s 84 years old, I want to say: ______.
65. Was Michelle Yeoh the first Asian woman to win an Osacar
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
66. When did Michelle Yeoh become famous
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
67. What did Michelle Yeoh want to tell the young and the women in her speech
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
68. Finish her words according to the passage. (At least 20 words)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
Ⅶ. 完成句子。（每空1分，共16分）
（1）用所给词的正确形式填空。
69. Would you mind ______ (open) the window here I feel so hot.
70. My brother is ______ (heavy) than me.
71. I eat a ______ (health) breakfast every morning.
72. I feel so tired because I ______ (stay) up late last night.
73. I often make dinner by ______ (I).
74. What do you expect ______ (learn) from the game show
（2）根据所给提示，完成句子。每空一词，含缩略词。
75. I took lots of photos on my vacation. (改为否定句)
I ______ ______ lots of photos on my vacation.
76. He watches TV twice a week. (对划线部分提问)
______ ______ does he watch TV
77. Lily is taller than any other student in class. (改为同义句)
Lily is ______ ______ student in class.
78. 莉莉和露西是双胞胎，因此她们有很多共同之处。(完成译句)
Lily and Lucy are twins, so they have much ______ ______.
79. 我们的人生只有一次， 我们要认真对待它。
We only have one life to live and we should ______ it ______.
Ⅷ. 七选五。（共10分，每空2分）
从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。其中有两项为多余选项。
School life should be fun and enjoyable. Everyone can make friends and have a wonderful life at school. But there may be less time to have a healthy lifestyle (生活方式). Without it, students may get ill more easily. 80.______
A healthy lifestyle starts with a good eating habit, so what you eat is very important. 81.______ Healthy food can give you a clear mind and more energy (能量).
82.______ Although exercise is important, it can be difficult for most busy students. Even if you plan well, you may give up. So a person who can exercise with you is important. 83.______ It gives you a way of making friends and relaxing.
Make a plan for your time and life so that you won’t be too tired. 84.______ So you should pay much attention to having classes and finishing homework on time. Then you can spend your free time with friends or develop (培养) your hobbies. So try to plan your time better. Then I believe you can have not only a great school life but also a healthy lifestyle.
A. Try to find someone you can exercise with.
B. Healthy eating habits have many advantages.
C. Learning is still an important thing for students.
D. Try to spend more time on exercise and sleeping.
E. To keep healthy, you can try the following ways.
F. There are many kinds of hobbies for you to develop.
G. At the same time, doing exercise with others is also fun.
Ⅸ. 书面表达。（20分）
假如你是李华，已经步入八年级有两个月了，与七年级相比，你现在更会规划自己的生活和学习了。你的英语老师惊叹你的巨大变化，鼓励你在明天的英语课上用英文介绍自己八年级的学习和生活变化，请先写一篇短文为明天的汇报做准备。
参考要点：
1．性格上，你更……；
2．学习上，八年级增加了……，你的学习方式更……；
3．课余生活上，你运动的频率更……，爱好更……；
4．……
要求：
1．词数：不少于80词（不包含开头）；2．文中不能出现真实的姓名和班级；3．开头已给出，可适当拓展。
Dear classmates,
How time flies! We are students in Grade 8 now. I’m very glad to share my changes and ways of my life and learning with you.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
参考答案
Ⅰ. 听力测试（每小题1.5分，共30分）
1—6 ABCACA 7—12 BCCCAA 13—16 CBAC 17—20 CCBB
Ⅱ.语法选择（每小题1分，共10分）
21—25 ABBAA 26—30 CBBBC
Ⅲ. 完形填空（每小题1分，共10分）
31—35 CBBCC 36—40 ABABC
Ⅳ. 阅读理解（每小题2分，共30分）
A. 41—43 BCD B. 44—47 DCBD C. 48—51 ABBA D. 52—55 BADD
E. 56—59 ACAD
Ⅴ. 口语应用（每小题1分，共5分）
60—64 DFBEA
Ⅵ. 任务型阅读。（65—67小题，每小题2分，68小题3分，共9分）
65. Yes. / Yes, she was.
66. In the 1990s. / She became famous in the 1990s.
67. They can dream big and should never give up.
68. 言之有理即可。
Ⅶ. 完成句子（每小题1分，共16分）
69. opening 70. heavier 71. healthy 72. stayed 73. myself 74. to learn
75. didn’t take 76. How often 77. the tallest 78. in common 79. take seriously
Ⅷ. 七选五。（每小题2分，共10分）
80—84 EBAGC
Ⅸ. 书面表达。（20分）
(略)

郑重声明：本文版权归原作者所有，转载文章仅为传播更多信息之目的，如作者信息标记有误，请第一时间联系我们修改或删除，多谢。