太湖县2023-2024学年度第二学期期末教学质量监测
八年级英语试题
提示:
1.本试题共四个部分，总分120分。考试时间为120分钟。
2.所有答案应写在答题卷上，考试结束时只上交答题卷。
第一部分 听力(共四大题，满分20分)
Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What’s wrong with Tom
A. B. C.
2. What are they talking about
A. B. C.
3. Who is Sam going to Shanghai with
A. His aunt. B. His uncle. C. His father.
4. When does the man go swimming
A. Every Saturday. B. Every Sunday. C. Every Friday.
5. Why was the man late
A. Because the street was too busy.
B. Because it was raining heavily.
C. Because he missed the bus.
Ⅲ.长对话理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至7小题。
6. Why is Sally going to London
A. To work there. B. To spend her holiday. C. To have a meeting.
7. How soon will the two speakers meet again
A. In three days. B. In three weeks. C. In three months.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。
8. Where will they enjoy the concert
A. In their school. B. In a park. C. In a theatre.
9. How much is a ticket for one student
A. 5 yuan. B. 10 yuan. C. 15 yuan.
10. When will the-concert begin
A. At 8:00. B. At7:30. C. At 7:00.
Ⅳ.短文理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. What does Jenny like
A. Reading. B. Writing. C. Thinking.
12. Where did Jenny find the old man
A. On a bus. B. On the way. C. In her office.
13. What did Jenny give to the old man
A. Some food. B. Some money. C. Some water.
14. How many children does the old man have
A. Two. B. One. C. None.
15. When did Jenny feel sad
A. When she saw the old man on the ground.
B. When she heard the old man’s story.
C. When she said goodbye to the old man.
Ⅳ.信息转换(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
A happy day on the farm
When and where Last 16 , Luke invited his best friend Jackson to his uncle’s farm in the countryside.
How It took them about 17 minutes to get to the farm.
What Luke’s aunt showed them around the farm. They felt very 18 . Luke and Jackson began to 19 apples. They had a picnic on the farm. They knew about the 20 of the farm from Luke’s uncle. Luke and Jackson learned how to ride a horse.
第二部分 英语知识运用(共两大题，满分30分)
Ⅴ.单项填空(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. Some people eat with eyes. They prefer to order what _____ nice.
A. looks B. smells C. sounds D. tastes
22.—Would you give me a few _____ on how to improve my spoken English
—OK, let me see.
A. minutes B. suggestions C. hobbies D. messages
23.—Helen, the advice you gave is really _____. Thanks so much.
—Not at all. I’m happy I can help you.
A. strange B. creative C. unusual D. impossible
24. Lucy always does very well in her English exams, but she can _____ understand English radio programmes.
A. completely B. easily C. hardly D. already
25. We are going to the bookstore in Tony's car. You can come with us _____ you can meet us there later.
A. but B. and C. so D. or
26.—Waiter(服务员), there’s a fly swimming in my soup.
—So what do you _____ me to do, call lifeguard(救生员)
A. Refuse B. expect C. invite D. help
27. I won’t ______ any more of your time. But would you give me a direct(直接地) “yes” or “no”
A. take up B. put up C. give up D. make up
28.—Excuse me. Could you please tell me ______
— Sure. At half past eight.
A. how you will go there B. where the movie theatre is
C. why you like this movie D. when the movie will tart
29.—How do you like Mount Huang, Lucy
—Oh, I _____ such a beautiful place before.
A. don’t visit B. didn’t visit C. haven’t visited D. can’t visit
30.—We are planning to volunteer to help the old. Would you like to join us
—______. Any time is OK.
A. I’m afraid not B. Of course C. Take it easy D. That depends
Ⅵ.完形填空(共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分)
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
I started learning French when I was ten. But all my experiences with the 31 were just in the classroom. All the things changed, however, during my last 32 of high school. At 17, I flew across the country by myself. I went to Quebec to live with a French-speaking host family.
When I arrived, I 33 my host family. They didn’t speak any English. I introduced myself as carefully as I could.
Just from the first day of school, none of us students 34 speak any other language, but French all summer. It even 35 the time when we talked with other English-speaking classmates!
I made new friends, ordered food from restaurants and even saw a movie 36 French. I didn’t understand most of it, but 37 seemed wonderful.
On weekends, my classmates and I took trips to different places. On one trip, we went whale (鲸) watching. Although it was raining, we could see some large whales 38 around our boat.
By the end of summer, I was 39 to speak French fluently(流利地). I couldn’t 40 to go back to school and talk with my French teacher.
31. A. teacher B. progress C. situation D. language
32. A. spring B. summer C. autumn D. winter
33. A. met B. left C. forgot D. taught
34. A. needn’t B. mustn’t C. might D. could
35. A. took B. meant C. included D. wasted
36. A. on B. over C. with D. in
37. A. everything B. nothing C. somebody D. anybody
38. A. flying B. running C. sitting D. swimming
39. A. strong B. weak C. nervous D. able
40. A. ride B. wait C. decide D. offer
B
Work is very important to Americans, and most of them 41 their work. Americans put their work first in life. They can learn 42 a person is great by talking about his job. So it’s 43 to hear people ask each other what they “do” for a living.
Today, Americans love to work and always want to get more 44 their work. Most Americans want their jobs to be 45 , wonderful and even challenging (有挑战性的). Americans work long hours.
Most people work about forty hours a week, 46 some even work much longer hours — more than sixty hours a week.
Most Americans are too busy with their work to 47 their families. In fact, many Americans have much more pressure (压力) from their work and fewer vacations. Sometimes they have to do 48 work at home.
In America, some 49 are fun and meaningful, but some are not. To feel better and become 50 from boring jobs, many Americans spend time on vacations, hobbies, sports and all kinds of parties when they are free.
41. A. like B. leave C. make D. find
42. A. when B. where C. if D. that
43. A. impossible B. common C. successful D. strange
44. A. about B. without C. around D. from
45. A. boring B. unfair C. interesting D. dangerous
46. A. and B. because C. or D. so
47. A. give up B. learn from C. look for D. care about
48. A. our B. their C. your D. his
49. A. places B. people C. jobs D. vacations
50. A. happier B. fatter C. busier D. older
第三部分 阅读理解(共两大题，满分45分)
Ⅵ.补全对话(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Hi, Lingling. I called you at 8:00 last night, but nobody answered. What were you doing
B: 51
A: Why
B: For my school trip this weekend.
A: Really 52.
B: We are going for a summer picnic in Dashushan Forest Park.
A: 53 . How are you going there
B: Our school bus will take us there.
A: 54
B: Yes, once a year. We all like it very much.
A: So nice! 55
B: Thank you.
A. Have a good trip. B. Sounds interesting. C. Where are you going D. I am doing my homework. E. How often do you have a trip F. Do you have a trip every year G. I was buying food in the supermarket.
Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分)
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
Basketball Game The most wonderful game of the year. Meet our school basketball stars. Basketball Court 3:00 p.m.-5:00 p.m. Tel: 375-7682
Water Sports It’s really cool! Xingsha Beach The whole afternoon Tel: 375-7442
Talent Show Are you good at singing, dancing, acting or playing the piano Cone and show yourself! Music Hal 7:00 p.m.-9:00p.m. Tel: 375-9876
Chess is fun! Different kinds of chess! Who will win at last Chess Club 8:00 a.m.-10:30 a.m. 1:00 pm.-3:30 p.m. Tel: 375-7465
For more information, please call the school office. Just do it! Enjoy yourself!
56. If you want to see the school basketball stars, you can go at _______.
A.8:00 a.m.-10:30 am. B.3:00 p.m - 5:00 p.m
C.1:00 p.m - 3:00 p.m D.7:00 p.m - 9:00 pan.
57. You can have water sports ________.
A. at Xingsha Beach B. at the music hall
C. at the basketball court D. at the chess club
58. You can _______ either in the morning or in the afternoon.
A. watch the basketball game B. go to the Talent Show
C. have the chess game D. have water sports
B
Q:
Hi, I’m Mike, your TEENS friend from the US. I hope I can help you with your problems.
Q:
Dear Mike, I’m not good at making friends. I can’t find a topic(话题) because I don’t know what to talk about with others. What should I do How can I make myself better -Jack
A:
Dear Jack, First of all, don’t think about it as making yourself “better”. You are you, and that’s perfectly fine. Embracing (拥抱) your true self is the best way to go, even if you're a bit different from others. Of course, it is not easy when you have a hard time making friends. Sometimes it feels nervous and uncomfortable to talk to people, especially people you don’t know. Do you have any hobbies or interests One of the best ways is to make friends. They like the same things you like. For example, when I was a kid, I made friends by finding other people. Those people enjoyed the same kind of music as me. I even formed bands(乐队)with some of them. I’d suggest joining a club at your school that is centered on your hobbies and interest. If there aren’t any clubs like that, maybe you could ask your teachers if you could start your own club. —Mike
59. What is Jack’s problem
A. He doesn’t like his friends. B. He can’t give a talk in front of others.
C. He is not good at speaking English. D. He doesn’t know how to make friends.
60. According to(根据)the passage, Mike thinks that _______.
A. it’s important to make oneself better B. it’s fine to be one’s true self
C it’s not a big problem to be alone D. sometimes other people are nervous
61. Mike uses an example from his own life to show that _______.
A. listening to music will be good for Jack
B. starting a club or a band is easy
C. he can make friends with anyone
D. close friends often have the same interests
62. The underlined “that” refers to(指的是)clubs that _______.
A. you can form bands in B. are centered on your hobbies and interests
C. are started by yourself D. you can find beautiful music in
C
Griffing is 91 years old now, but she is working in a hospital. She has been in the same job for 71 years. She says that being part of the medical field when she started to work at the age of 20 is “just magic”.
The doctors and nurses thought of Griffing as “the heart and soul (灵魂)” of the hospital.
Griffing was ill at the age of 19, and lived in the hospital where she would work in the end. She stayed there for four months.
One day, some doctors were complaining that a nurse didn’t come in, and that they were too busy.
Griffing says that one of them asked her, “Are you a nurse You should go to work.” Then she worked in that hospital.
Now, Griffing is the hospital’s goodwill ambassador(亲善大使). Griffing always smiles at her patients because she understands how important a smile in her work can be to others.
It’s no wonder(不足为奇)that Gniffing has been off sick for only four days in her 71 years in the job. “I don’t have time to be sad. I refuse to be sad, because I’m having too much fun being pleased. I work every day. I have to think and solve problems every day. I will stop working when they push me out of the door or carry me out in a box,” she says.
63. Griffing has worked as a nurse for ______.
A. 19 years B. 20 years C. 71 years D.91 years
64. What’s the Chinese meaning of the underlined word “complaining”
A.解释 B.想象 C.期待 D.抱怨
65. Being a nurse makes Griffing ______.
A. pleased B. sad C. nervous D. tired
66. What’s the best title for this passage
A. The power of a smile B. A nurse in good health
C. How to be a good nurse D. A nurse named Griffing
D
The winter holiday this year was much longer than before. Starting in March, we were told that we would have to take our classes online. I have had more free time at home since then.
To kill time, l took up a new hobby-solving jigsaw puzzles(拼图). I often watch a computer screen for a long time when I’m taking my classes. So I want to find something to give me a break from class. I wanted to find a simple task that I could enjoy.
But when I put all 1000 pieces of my first puzzle on the table, I regretted (后悔) not buying a simpler one. I found how impatient (没耐心的) I was. I couldn’t even do some simple tasks.
I looked for different pieces to see if they could fit together. I had to choose pieces that had similar(相似的) colors.
During this time, I slowly forgot about how bored I was at home. Every time I put one piece in the right place, I felt happy and wanted to keep on working. It was surprising to find so much joy in solving puzzles.
67. The writer started to work on jigsaw puzzles because ______.
A. it could make her smarter B. she wanted to kill time and relax
C. she didn’t want to take classes D. it could help her have more free time
68. As the writer started to work on the puzzle, she ______.
A. found the puzzle was too simple B. regretted working on it at home
C. was very interested in it D. thought it was too hard
69. How did the writer start solving the puzzle
A. By putting all of the pieces on the table. B. By putting similarly-colored pieces together.
C. By asking her friends for help. D. By buying an easier one online.
E
One day, two hungry people called Sam and Paul received gifts from an old man. Sam received a fishing rod(鱼竿), while Paul got a basket of fresh fish. Then, they went to the opposite ways.
Paul built a fire and cooked the fish. The fish was delicious and he enjoyed his meal. He quickly finished all of the fish. Soon, he died from hunger, as he had nothing left to eat. What about Sam He was still hungry. He walked to the beach with a fishing rod step by step, but was too tired to get there. He also died from hunger
There were two more hungry people called Peter and Victor. They also received a fishing rod and a basket of fish from the same old man, but they didn’t go their own separate ways. They agreed to find the sea together. At first, they cooked just one fish at a time as they traveled. Then they arrived at the sea. They started to take turns fishing. Over time, they caught many fish and started their own fishing business. Both of them lived happy and healthy lives.
The first pair of people failed to cooperate(合作)with each other. The second pair got more and realized their dreams by working together.
70. Sam died from hunger because _______.
A. he quickly ate all of the fish B. the fishing rod was too heavy
C. he was too tired to get to the beach D. he couldn’t find any fish in the sea
71. From the passage, we can know that _______.
A. Sam caught many fish and ate them up
B. Paul ate the fish without cooking them
C. Peter and Victor cooked two fish at a time
D. Peter and Victor lived happy lives
72. _______can help you succeed according to the story.
A. Cooperating with others B. Going to separate ways
C. Saving the food you have D. Doing your own business
阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题后面的词数要求)。
F
I was a fat girl before. I was 102kg and looked very big. But I wasn’t worried about it at all. Then one day I had a medical examination(体检). The doctor told me that I was having heart trouble. It woke me up.
I began to feel nervous. I decided to do something!
After a year and five months, I lost 47kg. What a great thing I did! I didn’t take any medicine. What was the secret(秘密)to my success On the Internet I looked for do-it-yourself advice that I could follow on losing weight. Of course I saw many ads(广告).They tried to get me to buy their medicine. But I bought nothing. The only thing I did was to change my bad habits. Here is what I did. You can have a try.
Stop drinking something with too much sugar in it. Don’t eat sweet cakes. Eat green vegetables.
Use only vegetable oil植物油). Never eat after 6:30 pm. Also, do exercise for 35 to 50minutes every day.
Then I kept doing what I should do. People sometimes say, “You don’t need to tell me what to do. I know it already!” But knowing what to do and doing what you know are different. The important thing is to know what to do and then just keep doing it.
73. When did the girl lose 47kg (不超过10个词)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
74. What’s her advice about exercise (不超过10个词)
____________________________________________________________________________________
75. What can we learn from the writer's experience (不超过15个词)
____________________________________________________________________________________
第四部分 写(共两大题，满分25分)
Ⅹ.单词拼写(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示、完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
76. Do you know why the a______ (古代的) people built the wall in China
77. Please remember the secret of s______ (成功) in study is to plan your time wisely.
78. To spread Chinese culture, many college students go a______ (到国外) to teach Chinese.
79. The garden near my home is in the s______ (形状) of a heart.
80. The little girl h______ (伤痛)her leg when she fell from her bike.
Ⅹ.书面表达(共1小题；满分20分)
为响应教育部加强中小学劳动教育的要求，培养学生爱劳动的好习惯，我们举行了主题为“Do Housework and Be Better Students”的征文比赛。请根据一下提示，写一篇短文参加这次活动。
要求:
1. What do you do at home
2. How do you fee1
3. What do you hope
注意:
1.短文须包括以上提示，可适当增加细节，以使文章连贯。
2.文中不得出现真实姓名。
3.词数80—100(短文题目和开头已为你写好，不计入总词数。)
Do you often do homework This term, I’m doing much more than before and it is changing me.

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