二七区汝河路小学 2021—2022 学年第二学期期末六年级英语学科学业水平测试
听力理解。(共三小节,计 30 分)
一:听录音,选出你说听到的句子中包含的单词。选择正确的答案,将其字母标号在答题卡上相应的位置。每小题读两遍。(共 5 小题,计 5 分)
( ) 1. A. heavy B.helpful C.healthy
( ) 2. A. goats B.horses C.cows
( ) 3. A. Saturdays B.Fridays C.Tuesdays
( ) 4. A.sweater B.shorts C.shirt
( ) 5. A.museum B.music C.mountain
二:听录音,给下列图片排序。将答案写在答题卡上相应的位置。每小题读两遍。(共 5 小题,计 5分)
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
三:听录音,根据你所听到的对话,选择正确的答案,将其字母标号在答题卡上相应的位置。每小题读两遍。(共 5 小题,计 10 分)
( ) 1. Question:What’s Jenny like
She’s short. B.She’s tall and thin. C.She has short hair.
( ) 2. Question:What is Jim doing
A. He’s reading a book.
B.He’s seeing a film.
C.He’s writing a letter.
( ) 3. Question:What will Lily do this weekend
A. She will go shopping.
She will go fishing.
She will go boating.
( ) 4.Question:Does Mike often go for a walk on the weekend
A.Yes, he does.
B.No, he doesn’t.
C.We don’t know.
( ) 5. Question: How tall is Mary
A.She’s 1.57 m.
B.She’s 1.62 m.
C.She’s 1.67 m.
四:听录音,根据短文内容,判断句子正(T)误(F)。将答案写在答题卡上相应的位置。每小题读两遍。(共 5 小题,计 10分)
( ) 1. Miller is good at swimming
( ) 2. Miller is going to take a trip to Sanya.
( ) 3. Miller can’t play football.
( ) 4. Miller will do morning exercises in the summer holiday.
( ) 5. Miller will be thinner after the holiday.
笔试部分(70 分)
五、读短文,根据内容,选择适当的单词,将短文补充完整,并将你所选择的单词的字母标号填在答题卡上相应的位置。(共 10 小题,计 10 分)
My family and I 1. (A.go B.went) to Chimelong Ocean Kingdom (长隆海洋王国) last week. It took us two hours to get there 2. (A.by B.on ) car. First, we went on different rides (游乐设施) in the park. It was great 3. (A.fun B.funny). Then we 4. (A.walk B.walked ) to see sea animals. They live in the beautiful 5. (A.white B.blue) world. I saw many white whales there. They were much 6. (A.bigger B.smaller ) than humans. And I knew a lot 7. (A.about B.in ) them. We also enjoyed a dolphin show. The dolphins are very clever. I like 8. (A.they B.them ) very much. We spent a day in the park. At last, we 9. (A.watch B.watched ) the fireworks(烟花) at night. They were amazing! My dad 10. (A.takes B.took ) many beautiful photos, too.
阅读理解。(共15小题,每小题2分,共30分)
A
Cant see without ears.
Mrs Wang asks David ,“ What will happen if someone loses ( 丢掉) his left ear?”
David says,“ He cannt hear from his left ear.”
The teacher asks again,“What if he also ( 也 ) loses his right ear?”
David answers “ Then he cannt hear or see.”
“ Why cannt he see?He has eyes.”asks the teacher.
David nods ( 点头 ) his head,“ Yes,its true. But without ears,his hat will fall and cover his eyes.”
根据短文内容完成下列选择题。
( )1.Mrs Wang is Davids .
A.sister B.mother C.teacher
( )2.—“What will happen if he loses his left ear?”
—He hear from his side.
A.can left B.cant left C.can right
( )3.If someone also loses his right ear,he will have .
A.no ears B.one ear C.two ears
( )4.Without ( 没有) ears,we cann’t .
A.walk B.see C.hear
( )5.David thinks,ears help the hat .
A.stay on the head B.fall C.cover his eyes
B
Create your own world.
“ I can build my own world in the game,it is interesting.” said Gao Weilun , a 7 year old boy in Beijing.
In Mine-craft( 我的世界) ,players can build simple( 简单的 ) things,like houses. They can also do big large building projects ( 工程) with friends.
For example,19 post-2000s ( 00 后 ) players built Luoyang city in a year.
The Luoyang city looks like the real one.
Love adventures ( 冒 险 ) ?Players can be heroes ( 英雄) ,fighting bad people in the game.They can also explore ( 探索) different maps.
Some adults ( 成年人 ) think the game is easy.But for children,its good for their imagination ( 想象力 ).Things in the game are not real. But the fun and creativity are!
根据短文内容判断对错,对填“T”,错填“F”。
( )1. Gao Weilun can build his own world in the game.
( )2. The Luoyang city is a easy thing in Minecrft.
( )3. The Luoyang city is real.
( )4. In adventures,players can be heroes and fight bad people.
( )5. Things in the game are real,the fun and creativity are real,too!
C
We are back!
The 6 month space mission ( 任务) set some new records ( 记录).It was the longest time Chinese astronauts(宇航员) stayed in the space station.Wang Yaping was the first Chinese female ( 女性) to do a space walk.The astronauts in space gave two science classes to students on
Earth.When the Shenzhou XII came back from the space station in 2021 ,it took (耗时) about 28 hours. This time,Shenzhou XIII took just 9 hours!
The astronauts felt good after landing ( 着陆 ) .But they still needed
to sit on chairs.The long space journey ( 旅行) changed their bodies.Their muscles ( 肌肉) and bones (骨头) became weaker.In the next few months ,they will take a check up (身体检查) and have a good rest.Good luck.
根据短文内容回答问题。
How long is this space mission
What record did Wang Yaping set
3.How many science classes did the astronauts give the students on Earth
4.How long did Shenzhou XIII come back from the space station
5.What will the astronauts do in the next few months
七、选择合适的选项补全对话。在答题卡上填上相应的字母序号。(10分)
A: Hello, Kevin. What do you usually do on Sundays
B: 1. But I didn’t go swimming last Sunday.
A: What did you do
B: 2.
A: Really 3.
B: By subway. It's fast.
A: 4.
B: Yes, we did.They are rare(稀少的)
in the world.
A: Animals are our friends.5.
B: Yes,you’re right.
八、书面表达。(共2部分,计20 分)
观察图片,用适当的句子描述图片,填写在答题卡的横线上,句式不限。 (共 45小题,计 10 分)
1.
(smaller)
2.
(tomorrow)
3.
(yesterday)
4.
(every day)
5.
(On Mondays)
B.现在的你和六年前相比,有了很大的变化吧!请根据所给提示描述一下自己的变化。 (共 10 分)
要求:条理清楚、语言准确、意思连贯;不少于五句话;不能出现自己的真实姓名。
Before Now
参考答案
听力部分
一、1-5 C; B; B; A; A
二.1-5 5; 3; 1; 4; 2
三:1-5 B; A; C; B; A
四:1-5 F T F T F
笔试部分
选词填空 1-5 B A A B B 6-10 A A B B B
六.阅读理解
A篇
1.C 2.B 3.A 4.C 5.A
B篇
T 2.F 3.F 4.T 5.F
C篇
6 months/6-month. It’s 6 months/6-month.
She is the first Chinese female/woman (astronaut) to do a space walk.
2/2 classes.
9 hours.
They will take a check-up and have a rest.
情境交际:
1-5 D E A C B
书面表达(答案不唯一)
A.观察图片,用适当的句子描述图片,填写在答题卡的横线上,句式不限
评价要求:
此题注意判断学生的观察和逻辑思维能力,有没有正确传达图片的信息。如离题太远,即使没有语法错误也要酌情扣分。
语法、大小写、拼写错误和作文部分评价要求相同。
The duck is smaller than the elephant.
He is going to ride a bike tomorrow.
He washed his clothes yesterday.
I do morning exercises every day.
We have maths,English,music and PE on Mondays.
B.现在的你和六年前相比,有了很大的变化吧!请根据所给提示描述一下自己的变化。
评价要求:
需要写出作文题目,没有题目扣 1 分。
题目、每句话首字母需大写,大小写、标点符号错误每 3 处扣 1 分,不足 3 处每处扣 0.5 分。相同错误不重复扣分。
字数过少扣 1 分。
4.语法错误每处扣 1 分,相同错误不重复扣分。
5.单词拼写错误每 3 处扣 1 分,不足 3 处每处 0.5 分。
6.根据作文总体情况,可分 ABCD 类给分。
A: 8—10 分 条理清楚、语言连贯、标点正确、书写规范。 B: 5---7 分 条理清楚、语言连贯、有个别语法或拼写错误。C: 3---4 分 条理基本清楚、语言基本连贯、错误较多。
D: 0---2 分 语法混乱,不知所云。
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