参考答案：
1．B
【原文】M: Mum, could you drive me to the book show
W: Sorry, I’m not available. You can take the subway there by yourself.
2．A
【原文】M: Jane, I am so excited because I got the same score as you.
W: Congratulations, David. But Frank scored more than both of us.
3．B
【原文】略
4．A
【原文】M: Sorry, boss. I am late. I had an accident on my way to work.
W: Is there anything serious Have you seen the doctor
M: Nothing serious. When I was crossing the road, a man on the bike hit me.
W: OK, just be careful next time. You can go to work now.
5．C
【原文】M: Excuse me, madam. Your bag is 3 kilos overweight. According to the rule, 25 kilos are allowed for each person.
W: Oh, I see. I’ll cut it down.
6．A 7．B 8．C
【原文】W: Good afternoon. Can I help you
M: Yes, please. I bought this CD player here and there’s something wrong with it.
W: I see. When did you buy it
M: I only bought it three days ago, on Monday. I felt quite angry, you know.
W: Sorry, sir. Well, I can give you the money back or change the CD player for a new one.
M: I think I’d like my money back, please.
W: Certainly. Can you write your name on this form, please
M: Of course. Here you are.
W: Thank you very much. Here’s your money, $589.5.
9．C 10．B 11．A
【原文】M: Hi! Kate. Why do you look worried
W: I want to take up a new hobby, but I don’t know what to choose. Do you have any ideas
M: Have you tried tennis
W: Yes, I have. But it’s very tiring.
M: Are you good at art or music
W: Yes, I am.
M: Well, the art teacher is going to start a new after-school club. There you can learn to draw cartoons.
W: That sounds interesting. How long is each class
M: First the art teacher will teach us how to draw for half an hour and then we will spend another half an hour practicing.
W: How often is the club
M: Every Wednesday and Friday.
W: Shall I go to the club on the third floor or the fourth floor
M: Neither. It’s on the second floor.
W: I can’t wait to join the club.
12．B 13．A 14．A 15．C
【原文】Hello, everyone. The topic of my speech today is Earth Day. No one likes pollution. We have to take care of the earth. Earth Day makes people remember the importance of protecting the earth. It started in 1970 in the USA. Now, people in 193 countries celebrate Earth Day on April 22 every year. On that day, people often do the things for the environment. For example, people clean up their towns and roads. They recycle paper so that it can be used again. Some people take the bus or subway instead of driving on that day. They take short showers and turn off lights when they leave the room. Each Earth Day has a theme. The theme for Earth Day 2022 is Restore our Earth because our earth has been hurt for years. Earth is our home! Let’s make every day Earth Day to make our home better and better!
16．D 17．D 18．C
【导语】本文主要介绍了世界新七大奇迹中的四个。
16．细节理解题。根据“This was an important city for the Mayans. It was built between about 700 CE and 1000 CE”，“Built between 1922 and 1931, the statue has become a well-known sight of Brazil.”，“This famous amphitheatre, built between 70 CE and 80 CE,”和“This amazing structure was built over a period of more than two thousand years”可知，救世主基督雕像是最新的建筑，故选D。
17．细节理解题。根据“At around 6, 500 kilometres, it’s one of the longest man-made wonders on the planet.”可知，中国的长城是世界上最长的人造奇迹之一。故选D。
18．推理判断题。本文主要介绍了世界新七大奇迹中的四个，所以可能在杂志的旅游部分看到。故选C。
19．D 20．D 21．A 22．B
【导语】本文是一篇说明文，主要介绍了MBTI性格测试。
19．细节理解题。根据“ Many people are crazy about it so that they take a personality*test named Myers-Briggs test to find out the answer.”可知，MBTI是一项个性测试，也就是找到你的个性类别。故选D。
20．细节理解题。根据“ I’m an ‘E’ person. I should go to the party and make more friends.”可知，E人是应该去派对并且交更多的朋友的一类人，选项D“喜欢和不同的人一起庆祝不同的节日”符合语境。故选D。
21．词句猜测题。根据“ They can be used to describe many people.”可知，可以描述很多人，那就是描述很常见。故选A。
22．推理判断题。根据“ Many people find the MBTI (Myers-Briggs Test Indicator) useful.”和“ But there are also problems. Some people take the test for a second time and get different results.”可知，文章第二段论证了为什么MBTI测试有用，第三段又提到了一些问题，因此可以推断，作者主要是为了说清楚这个测试是否有用。故选B。
23．D 24．A 25．B 26．A
【导语】本文主要讲述了对Wi-Fi信号过敏的Rose，一接触到Wi-Fi就咳嗽，心脏不舒服，头疼，结果不得到搬到大山里躲避Wi-Fi。
23．细节理解题。根据“She had a cough, heart trouble and great pains in her head when she stayed at the places covered with Wi-Fi signals.”可知，当Rose待在覆盖Wi-Fi信号的地方时，会咳嗽、心脏病和头痛。没有提到胃疼。故选D。
24．细节理解题。根据“Rose has tried many ways to keep away from Wi-Fi signals. In the past six months, she either slept in her car or in tent which she had put up in the woodland and in the fields. She even tried sleeping in a shed.”可知，罗斯尝试了很多方法来远离Wi-Fi信号。在过去的六个月里，她要么睡在车里，要么睡在树林里和田野里的帐篷里。她甚至试着睡在小屋里。故选A。
25．细节理解题。根据“However, the house, which belongs to her friend, will be sold to others, so she has to move again soon.”可知，因为她的朋友决定要把房子卖了。故选B。
26．推理判断题。根据“As she has no job and therefore no income, she has to raise money online. She is hoping to raise 15,000 pounds. So far, she has raised over 1,600 pounds. She still has a long way to go.”可知，她的感觉应该很无助。故选A。
27．D 28．C 29．B 30．A
【导语】本文主要介绍了如何通过改变对幸福的看法来帮助你每天感受到更多的快乐。
27．细节理解题。根据第二段“Dr. Francesca Geens believes that happiness comes when we feel good about who we are and where our life is going.”可知，当我们自我感觉良好时，幸福就会到来。故选D。
28．细节理解题。根据第三段“For example, you may realize that working out a difficult puzzle makes you feel better than watching a favorite TV show.”可知，作者是通过举例来说明的。故选C。
29．推理判断题。根据最后一段“So it’s important to notice the simple things that make you feel happy.”可知，注意那些让你感到快乐的简单事情是很重要的。由此推知，幸福也可以存在于简单的事情中。故选B。
30．篇章结构题。通读全文可知，第一段是总说，改变对幸福的看法可以帮助你每天感受到更多的快乐；第二、三、四、五段是关于如何保持幸福；A选项符合本文结构。故选A。
31．A 32．F 33．E 34．C 35．B
【导语】本文就如何睡好觉给出了几点建议。
31．根据“Avoid coffee, tea, and cola drinks late in the evening as they may keep you awake. Bedtime snacks like a butter sandwich or a bottle of milk can help. But don’t eat too much, your body will have to stay awake half the night digesting (消化) your meal, so you won’t feel rested in the morning.”可知，本段在介绍睡前要注意吃食物和饮料。选项A“正确饮食”符合。故选A。
32．根据“Working on the phones before sleeping will stimulate (刺激) your brain and can cause you stress. Also, the blue light which is sent out from smartphones, TV and computer screens can make you awake.”可知，本段介绍了睡前玩手机的危害。选项F“关闭智能手机”符合。故选F。
33．根据“It’s important to let go of the worries that build up during the day.”可知，本段内容和“烦恼”相关。选项E“忘掉你的烦恼”符合。故选E。
34．根据“Whether you’re swimming, running, or practicing yoga, exercise can make fora great night’s sleep. ”可知，本段内容和锻炼相关。选项C“做一些运动”符合。故选C。
35．根据“If you’re having trouble sleeping, getting up earlier could be the solution for you.”可知，本段内容和“早起”相关。选项B“早点起床”符合。故选B。
36．C 37．A 38．B 39．D 40．C 41．A 42．C 43．D 44．B 45．B 46．D 47．A 48．C 49．D 50．B
【导语】本文主要讲述了一个小男孩想要买一辆自行车，但是他的钱不够，他就通过做各种各样的工作赚钱，最后他终于攒够了买自行车的钱。
36．句意：他仔细地数着床上的硬币。
books书本；boxes盒子；coins硬币；numbers数字。根据“32 dollars was all that he had”可知，他在数自己的硬币，看看有多少钱，故选C。
37．句意：他想要的那辆自行车至少值100美元!
bicycle自行车；job工作；car汽车；dog狗。根据下文介绍可知，他想买自行车，故选A。
38．句意：他究竟怎样才能弄到剩下的钱呢？
Who谁；How如何；Why为什么；What什么。根据“on earth was he going to get the rest of the money ”可知，马丁想要知道自己究竟怎样才能弄到剩下的钱，故选B。
39．句意：当你是唯一一个没有车的人的时候，你很难和别人相处。
cool凉爽的；boring无聊的；interesting有趣的；hard困难的。根据“hang around with people when you were the only one without wheels.”结合常识可知，当朋友都有自行车，就你没有，你是很难和他们相处的，故选D。
40．句意：他想了想他能做些什么。
waited for等待；asked for要求；thought about考虑；learned about了解。根据“what he could do.”可知，应该是自己思考如何去赚钱买自行车，故选C。
41．句意：问他父母是没有用的，因为他知道他们没有多余的钱。
use用途；rule规则；excuse原谅；right右边。根据“for he knew they had no money to spare.”可知，因为父母没有多余的钱，所以他知道找父母要是没有用的，故选A。
42．句意：但谁会给他机会，他又能做些什么呢
So所以；If如果；But但是；Though尽管。前后句是转折关系，应用but连接，故选C。
43．句意：他决定向艾伦先生征求意见，因为他通常对大多数事情都有经验。
she她；they他们；we我们；he他。此空代指艾伦先生，应用he，故选D。
44．句意：这就是马丁打零工生意的开始。
opening打开；beginning开始；ending结束；closing关闭。根据“For 3 months he worked every day after finishing his homework.”可知，这是打零工的开始，故选B。
45．句意：他不记得自己洗了多少辆汽车，擦了多少扇窗户，但钱越来越多了，他知道他很快就会有足够的钱买这辆自行车。
forget忘记；remember记得；see看见；understand理解。根据“how many cars he washed and how many windows he cleaned,”可知，几个月下来，马丁也记不得自己洗了多少辆汽车，擦了多少扇窗户。故选B。
46．句意：他不记得自己洗了多少辆汽车，擦了多少扇窗户，但钱越来越多了，他知道他很快就会有足够的钱买这辆自行车。
with和；by通过；on在上面；for为了。根据“have enough...the bicycle.”可知，此处是指马丁有了足够买自行车的钱，应用介词for，故选D。
47．句意：终于有一天，马丁数了数钱，发现有104.32美元。
finally最终；usually通常；suddenly突然；slowly缓慢地。根据“The day...came when Martin counted his money and found $104.32.”可知，最终马丁赚到了买自行车的钱，故选A。
48．句意：他没有浪费时间，下楼到商店去取他想要的自行车。
found发现；got得到；wasted浪费；controlled控制。根据“He...no time and went down to the shop to pick up the bicycle he wanted.”结合语境可知，马丁有了买自行车的钱，所以没有浪费时间，迫不及待就去买车了，故选C。
49．句意：他自豪地骑回家。
patiently耐心地；carefully认真地；quietly安静地；proudly自豪地。根据文章介绍可知，因为马丁打工挣钱买到了自行车，所以感到自豪，故选D。
50．句意：他完成了他认为不可能完成的事情，而这比那辆自行车更有价值。
believed相信；done做，完成；suggested建议；shared分享。根据“He had...what he thought was impossible, and that was worth even more than the bicycle.”可知，马丁通过自己努力完成了他认为不可能完成的事情，故选B。
51．to understand 52．quickly 53．more 54．explains 55．those 56．sadness 57．companies 58．will help 59．successful 60．taking
【导语】本文介绍社会学家发现如今人们相互理解的现象正在减少，就此负责一个青少年项目的Annie分析其原因，并且作者就如何培养同理心提出了几点建议。
51．句意：2015年，一些美国社会学家报告称，移情能力，即理解他人和分享他人感受的能力，在过去10年里在大学生中迅速下降。the ability to do sth“做某事的能力”，使用动词不定式作定语，故填to understand。
52．句意：2015年，一些美国社会学家报告称，移情能力，即理解他人和分享他人感受的能力，在过去10年里在大学生中迅速下降。此处在句中修饰动词，用副词形式，故填quickly。
53．句意：今天，人们花更多的时间独处，不太可能参加团体和俱乐部。此处暗含与过去的比较，用形容词比较级，故填more。
54．句意：她解释说不同。时态是一般现在时，主语是She，动词用三单。故填explains。
55．句意：我们有充分的理由不去追随那些坏榜样。此处修饰可数名词复数examples，用that的复数，故填those。
56．句意：此外，同理心可以帮助我们远离悲伤和恐惧。此处作宾语，与名词fear并列，所以用名词形式，故填sadness。
57．句意：安妮说，事实上，许多顶级公司认为，换位思考是他们在新经理身上寻找的最重要的东西之一。many修饰可数名词复数，故填companies。
58．句意：良好的社交技能，包括同理心，是“情商”之王，它将帮助你在生活的许多领域取得成功。根据“and it...you succeed in many areas of life”可知，是在未来的日子里帮助你，用一般将来时will do，故填will help。
59．句意：“但如果你没有情商，你就不会在工作或生活中取得成功，”她说。此处在句中作表语，用形容词形式，故填successful。
60．句意：要真正培养同理心，你最好去养老院或医院做志愿者，加入一个俱乐部或一个成员多元化的团队，与家人建立一个“分享圈”，或花时间在动物收容所照顾宠物。spend time doing sth“花时间做某事”，故填taking。
61．(c)ry
【详解】句意：妈妈一听到婴儿的哭声就跑到了房间。根据“Mother ran to the room the minute she heard the c... of her baby.”可知，此处是指婴儿的哭声，名词cry“哭声”符合语境。故填(c)ry。
62．(s)leepy
【详解】句意：我无论什么时候读这本乏味的书，都感觉很困倦。根据“feel”可知，感官动词，后跟形容词作表语，根据首字母及题干可知，表示“困倦的”，故填(s)leepy。
63．(a)loud
【详解】句意：大声朗读确实有助于提高我的英语发音。此处修饰动词read，需填副词；read aloud“大声朗读”，符合题意。故填(a)loud。
64．(h)eat
【详解】句意：喝之前记得把牛奶加热。这对你的胃有好处。根据“Remember to h... the milk before drinking.”可知，此处是指加热牛奶，heat“加热”，不定式符号to后跟原形。故填(h)eat。
65．(e)xcept
【详解】句意：昨天除了米娅，我所有的同学都参加了聚会。她得了重感冒。根据“All of my classmates attended the party yesterday...Mia. She caught a bad cold.”和首字母提示可知，米娅得了重感冒，可推测此处是除了米娅，我所有的同学都参加聚会了，名词Mia前需填介词，介词except“除……之外”符合语境。故填(e)xcept。
66．(e)ast
【详解】句意：太阳从东方升起，从西方落下。根据“sets in the west.”及所给的首字母可知，太阳从东方升起，east意为“东方”，in the east在东方。故填east。
67．(p)refers
【详解】句意：我哥哥更喜欢流行音乐，而我更喜欢乡村音乐。根据“hile I like county music better”和首字母提示，我哥哥更喜欢流行音乐，句子时态是一般现在时，主语是单数，谓语动词用三单，prefers“更喜欢”符合句意，故填(p)refers。
68．(p)roud
【详解】句意：父母总是为他们的孩子所做的每一件好事感到骄傲。根据“everything good their children did”和首字母可知，父母为孩子做的事情骄傲，be proud of“为……骄傲”，故填(p)roud。
69．(s)tole
【详解】句意：有人在公共汽车上偷走了钱包，现在我连早餐都付不起！根据“I couldn’t even pay my breakfast!”可知我连早餐都付不起，因为钱包被偷了，steal“偷”；此处表示的动作已过去，应用一般过去时，过去式为stole。故填(s)tole。
70．(h)eroes
【详解】句意：他们因从大火中拯救了人们的生命而成为民族英雄。根据语境和首字母提示可知，此处为他们因在大火中救人而成为民族英雄，hero符合语境，主语为They，空处需填名词复数。故填(h)eroes。
71．例文
Dear Alex,
I’m OK, thank you. I’m sorry to know that you have some problems recently. Here are my suggestions.
It is not easy to learn Chinese well. If you want to study it well, you should often listen to the tapes, Chinese songs and programs. Watching Chinese movies is also helpful to you. Besides, you should speak Chinese as much as possible in class.
In terms of study, you should think about your weaknesses and make a plan by yourself. Then, you should learn how to relax yourself. Doing more sports such as running and playing table tennis is good for your health and listening to music is also a good way to relax.
I hope these suggestions will help you.
Yours,
Li Ping
【详解】[总体分析]
① 题材：本文是一篇应用文，为电子邮件；
② 时态：时态为“一般现在时”；
③ 提示：题干中没有给出明确的写作要点，考生需要从邮件内容提炼出要点，具体包括两大方面：中文学习和如何放松自我；注意补充细节，使得行文通顺、连贯。
[写作步骤]
第一步，感谢问候，并对他面临的问题表示遗憾；
第二步，给出中文学习的建议；
第三步，介绍如何放松自我；
第四步，总结全文。
[亮点词汇]
① listen to tapes 听磁带
② helpful 有帮助的
③ as much as possible 尽可能
④ be good for 对……有益
[高分句型]
① It is not easy to learn Chinese well.（it is+adj.+to do sth. 做某事是……的）
② Doing more sports such as running and playing table tennis is good for your health and listening to music is also a good way to relax.（动名词作主语）
精品试卷·第 2 页 （共 2 页）
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2023-2024学年九年级上学期12月第三次月考（杭州卷）
英语
（满分：120分；考试时间：100分钟，其中听力30分钟，笔试90分钟）
注意事项：
1. 本试卷共四部分，共七大题，满分120分，考试时间100分钟。
2. 请务必在答题卡上答题，在试卷上答题无效。
3. 考试结束后，请将试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第I卷
第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分30分)
第一节 （共 5小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
听下面 5 段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试题的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
一、听短对话选答案（共 5 小题，每小题 2分，满分 10 分）
1．How might the boy go to the book show
A．By car. B．By subway. C．By bus.
2．Who has the highest grade
A．Frank. B．David. C．Jane.
3．What will the man probably do tomorrow afternoon？
A．Attend a meeting. B．Meet the woman. C．Give a speech.
4．Where is the man at the time of the conversation
A．In his working place. B．In a hospital. C．In the street.
5．How heavy is the woman’s bag
A．22 kilos. B．25 kilos. C．28 kilos.
二、听对话或对白选答案（共 10 小题，每小题 2分，满分 20分）
听下面一段对话，回答三个小题。
6．When did the man buy the CD player
A．On Monday. B．On Thursday. C．On Friday.
7．How will the man deal with the CD player
A．He will change another one.
B．He will get his money back.
C．He will write his name on it.
8．How much is the CD player
A．$598.5. B．$958.5. C．$589.5.
听下面一段对话，回答三个小题。
9．What is Kate’s problem
A．She doesn’t have any hobbies at all.
B．She has no idea how to start a new club.
C．She doesn’t know what hobby to choose.
10．How long is each class
A．Half an hour. B．An hour. C．An hour and a half.
11．Which floor is the club on
A．On the second floor. B．On the third floor. C．On the fourth floor.
听下面一段独白，回答四个小题。
12．Where did Earth Day begin
A．In Australia. B．In America. C．In Britain.
13．How often is Earth Day celebrated
A．Every year. B．Every two years. C．Every three years.
14．What do people often do on Earth Day
A．Clean up towns. B．Recycle the rubbish. C．Turn off the TV.
15．Why does the speaker give the speech
A．To remind us of harm we did to the earth.
B．To ask us to remember Earth Day forever.
C．To call on us to try to protect the earth.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节；满分40分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中选出最佳选项。
A
Recently, an online poll was held to choose the New Seven Wonders of the World. Over 100 million people voted. Here are four of the seven winners.
Chichen Itza, Mexico This was an important city for the Mayans. It was built between about 700 CE and 1000 CE. A symbol of Mayan culture, it was a centre for business in things like cloth, honey and salt. Most photographs show a 24-metre high pyramid. It’s amazing for tourists to see it in person.
Christ the Redeemer statue, Brazil Built between 1922 and 1931, the statue has become a well-known sight of Brazil. The statue is about thirty metres high and the arms measure 28 metres end to end. Designed by a Frenchman and built by a local artist, it attracts thousands of visitors every year.
The Colosseum, Italy This famous amphitheatre, built between 70 CE and 80 CE, was used by the Romans for about 500 years for all kinds of public performances. Now it is almost a complete ruin, as a result of earthquakes and the passage of time, but some parts can be visited. The Colosseum has become one of the most famous buildings of Italy.
The Great Wall, China This amazing structure was built over a period of more than two thousand years, ending in the 16th century. It was built in order to keep out the enemies of Mongolia on the other side. The Great Wall is not actually just one continuous wall, but a succession of many different ones. At around 6, 500 kilometres, it’s one of the longest man-made wonders on the planet.
16．According to the passage, ________ is the newest building.
A．The Colosseum, Italy B．Chichen Itza, Mexico
C．The Great Wall, China D．Christ the Redeemer statue, Brazil
17．According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE
A．Chichen Itza is a center of tourists.
B．Christ the Redeemer statue was built by a Frenchman.
C．The Colosseum is used for all kinds of public performances now.
D．The Great Wall of China is one of the longest man-made wonders in the world.
18．In which part of a magazine can we read the passage
A．IT. B．Society. C．Travel. D．Business.
B
“Am I an ‘I’ person or an ‘E’ person ” It is a popular topic among young people around China today. Many people are crazy about it so that they take a personality test named Myers-Briggs test to find out the answer.
Many people find the MBTI (Myers-Briggs Test Indicator) useful. It groups people into 16 types, which start with the letter “I” or “E”, such as “ENTJ, INFP” or more. “E” is short for “Extroversion” while “I” is for “Introversion”. “I’m an ‘E’ person. I should go to the party and make more friends. ” “I’m an ‘I’ person. I’d like to work by myself. I could be a writer in the future. ” They believe different types can help them make decisions for activities, jobs or even life choices more quickly.
But there are also problems. Some people take the test for a second time and get different results. Some people find it hard to answer some questions. “I like watching TV by myself. But I also enjoy playing with friends. Am I an ‘I’ or an ‘E’ ”
When you take a personality test, you may think, “Oh, that’s me.” That’s because the descriptions are generic. They can be used to describe many people. Research has found that over 50% of people get a different score when they retook the MBTI just five weeks later. Personalities can change with time, and they are not black-or-white, scientists say. You may be introverted now but become extroverted when you get older. Or, you can be both an “I” and an “E”. Don’t label yourself! Studies have also shown that the test is not real at telling people’s success in different jobs. So, don’t take it too seriously.
19．MBTI is a test _______.
A．without a hot topic B．with the same answer
C．about young people in China D．for your personality type
20．If you are an “E” person, you may _______.
A．like to read books in the library on vacation
B．like to cook simple meals at home on weekends
C．like to watch movies with a pet dog on Friday night
D．like to celebrate different festivals with different people
21．What does the underlined word “generic” probably mean
A．common B．special C．clear D．simple
22．Why does the author write the passage
A．To introduce what MBTI is. B．To tell whether MBTI is useful.
C．To explain how people use MBTI. D．To list how many people use MBTI.
C
You may have heard of people who are allergic (过敏) to seafood, smoke or pets. But did you know that some people were allergic to Wi-Fi signals (信号)
Rachel Honks, a 44-year-old woman from Britain, first found herself being allergic to Wi-Fi signals in 2015. She had a cough, heart trouble and great pains in her head when she stayed at the places covered with Wi-Fi signals.
Rachel has tried many ways to keep away from Wi-Fi signals. In the past six months, she either slept in her car or in tent which she had put up in the woodland or in the fields. She has even tried sleeping in a shed (棚). Being completely tired, Rachel had no choice but to quit her job and moved 370 kilometers away from her home to escape Wi-Fi signals, but failed. Because of the hard life, she got a stomach problem.
She is now living in a small house in rural (乡下的) Wales. There are far fewer Wi-Fi signals. However, the house, which belongs to one of her friends, will be sold to others, so she has to move again soon.
Rachel is planning to move to a more rural area. She is also planning to buy a camper van (野营车) so that she can drive away from Wi-Fi signals whenever she is feeling uncomfortable. As she has no job and therefore no income, she has to raise money online. She is hoping to raise 15,000 pounds. So far, she has raised over 1,600 pounds. She still has a long way to go.
23．Which is not Rachel’s allergic symptom (症状)
A．Cough. B．Heart problem. C．Headache. D．Stomachache.
24．What did Rachel do to keep away from Wi-Fi signals
A．She slept in tent in the woodland. B．She bought a small house in the countryside.
C．She moved to a more rural area. D．She bought a camper van.
25．Why does Rachel have to move again soon
A．Because she wants to move to a new place.
B．Because her friends decided to sell the house.
C．Because she tries to find a job in a more rural area.
D．Because the place she lives in is near the Wi-Fi signals.
26．Which of the following words best describes Rachel’s feeling
A．Helpless. B．Scared. C．Angry. D．Happy.
D
Everyone wants to be happy, but sometimes it can be difficult to feel happiness. That’s because we have misunderstandings about happiness that can get in the way. The good news is that changing the way you think about happiness can help you to feel more joy each day.
Dr. Mark Williamson from the charity Action for Happiness says, “Happiness is not about denying (拒绝承认) terrible feelings or being joyful all the time. It’s about making the most of good times and learning to deal with bad times.” Dr. Francesca Geens believes that happiness comes when we feel good about who we are and where our life is going.
Noticing when you feel happy and what you’re doing or what’s happening at that time can help you to find more happiness. For example, you may realize that working out a difficult puzzle makes you feel better than watching a favorite TV show. What helps you to feel happy might be different from what makes someone else happy.
Start a list of things that make you happy and keep adding to it as you discover new ones. Make time to do what you know makes you happy and remember that joy isn’t only found in what you do for yourself—being kind and thoughtful to other people helps you feel happier, too.
There are misunderstandings that can make it hard to feel happy. One is that it’s selfish to be happy when other people are sad. However, stopping yourself from being happy doesn’t make other people less sad. In fact, research has shown that happy people spread happiness to others. Another thing is thinking that you need lots of money and things to be happy. Studies have shown that when people win the lottery (彩票), they feel a short burst of happiness but they soon return to feeling the same as they did before they won. So it’s important to notice the simple things that make you feel happy.
27．What can we learn from the text about happiness
A．It’s easy for everyone to feel happiness. B．It’s necessary to deny bad feelings.
C．It means you don’t go through bad times. D．It comes when we feel good about ourselves.
28．How does the author explain the way to feel more joy in Paragraph 3
A．By telling a story. B．By asking a question.
C．By giving an example. D．By comparing two facts.
29．What can be learned from the text
A．Stop being happy when others are sad.
B．Happiness can also lie in the simple things.
C．Helping others has nothing to do with happiness.
D．Winning Lottery can make you happy for a very long time.
30．Which of the following shows the structure of the text
A．B． C． D．
第二节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
下面文章中有五处需要添加标题。请从以下选项(A、B、 C、D、E和F）中选出符合意思的标题。选项中有一项是多余选项。
Tips for a good night’s sleep
Are you stressed out or worried about something Can you sleep well Do you always wake up at night How to get a good night’s sleep is a problem that troubles a lot of people. The following shows what you can do to make sure you get a good night’s sleep.
31
Avoid coffee, tea, and cola drinks late in the evening as they may keep you awake. Bedtime snacks like a butter sandwich or a bottle of milk can help. But don’t eat too much, your body will have to stay awake half the night digesting (消化) your meal, so you won’t feel rested in the morning.
32
Working on the phones before sleeping will stimulate (刺激) your brain and can cause you stress. Also, the blue light which is sent out from smartphones, TV and computer screens can make you awake.
33
It’s important to let go of the worries that build up during the day. They can influence the quality of sleep. The worries of the day should not be brought to bed, and listening to soft music can help you forget your trouble.
34
Whether you’re swimming, running, or practicing yoga, exercise can make for a great night’s sleep. But remember, don’t exercise too late. It’s best to work out around six hours before you go to bed as your body stays overheated for several hours after exercise, causing awake.
35
If you’re having trouble sleeping, getting up earlier could be the solution for you. It may seem painful, but it can get results. You should also avoid short sleep during the day, especially if it’s for over 20 minutes, as waking up from deep sleep can make you feel uncomfortable.
A．Eat properly
B．Get up early
C．Do some exercise
D．Work on computers
E．Forget your worries
F．Turn off smartphones
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分25分）
第一节：完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Martin shook his money box again. Nothing! He carefully counted the 36 that lay on the bed. 32 dollars was all that he had. The 37 he wanted was at least 100 dollars! 38 on earth was he going to get the rest of the money
He knew that his friends all had bicycles. It was 39 to hang around with people when you were the only one without wheels. He 40 what he could do. There was no 41 asking his parents, for he knew they had no money to spare.
There was only one way to get money, and that was to earn it. He would have to find a job. 42 who would give him the chance and what could he do He decided to ask Mr. Allen for advice because 43 usually had experience on most things.
That was the 44 of Martin’s odd job（零工） business. For 3 months he worked every day after finishing his homework. He took dogs and babies for walks, cleared out cupboards, and mended books. He couldn’t 45 how many cars he washed and how many windows he cleaned, but the money increased and he knew that he would soon have enough 46 the bicycle.
The day 47 came when Martin counted his money and found $104.32. He 48 no time and went down to the shop to pick up the bicycle he wanted. He rode 49 home. He looked forward to showing his new bicycle to his friends. It had been difficult working for the money, but Martin knew it was a valuable experience. He had 50 what he thought was impossible, and that was worth even more than the bicycle.
36．A．books B．boxes C．coins D．numbers
37．A．bicycle B．job C．car D．dog
38．A．Who B．How C．Why D．What
39．A．cool B．boring C．interesting D．hard
40．A．waited for B．asked for C．thought about D．learned about
41．A．use B．rule C．excuse D．right
42．A．So B．If C．But D．Though
43．A．she B．they C．we D．he
44．A．opening B．beginning C．ending D．closing
45．A．forget B．remember C．see D．understand
46．A．with B．by C．on D．for
47．A．finally B．usually C．suddenly D．slowly
48．A．found B．got C．wasted D．controlled
49．A．patiently B．carefully C．quietly D．proudly
50．A．believed B．done C．suggested D．shared
第II卷
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分25分）
第二节：（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。将答案填写在答题纸的相应位置。
In 2015, some American sociologists (社会学家) reported that empathy, the ability 51 (understand) other people and share other’s feelings among college students had fallen down 52 (quick) over the past 10 years. That could be because so many people have replaced face time with screen time, the sociologists said. Today, people spend 53 (much) time alone and are less likely to join groups and clubs.
Annie Moore is in charge of a teen program. She 54 (explain) differently. Turn on the TV, and we watch news and see reality shows full of people fighting, competing and treating one another with no respect. Humans learn by example - and some examples are not empathetic (有同理心的) at all.
There are good reasons not to follow 55 (that) bad examples. Humans are born with social relations. And empathy plays a key role in these relationships. The sociologists have also found that empathetic teenagers are more likely to have high self-respect. Besides, empathy can help us stay away from 56 (sad) and fear.
Empathy is also an ability for a good leader. In fact, Annie says, many top 57 (company) think that empathy is one of the most important things they look for in new managers. Good social skills, including empathy are a king of “emotional (情感的) intelligence” and it 58 (help) you succeed in many areas of life. “Academics (学术知识) are important. But if you don’t have emotional intelligence, you won’t be as 59 (success) in work or life,” she says.
What’s the best way to up your EQ (情商) For starters, let down your guard and really listen to others. “One doesn’t have empathy by having a lot of opinions and doing a lot of talking,” Annie says.
To really develop empathy, you’d better volunteer a nursing home or a hospital, join a club or a team that has a diverse membership, have a “sharing circle” with your family, or spend time 60 (take) care of pets at an animal shelter.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分25分）
第一节：单词拼写（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
根据首字母提示,正确拼写单词,并将答案填写在答题卡对应的横线上。
61．Mother ran to the room the minute she heard the c of her baby.
62．Whenever I read this boring book, I feel s .
63．Reading a really helps to improve my English pronunciation.
64．Remember to h the milk before drinking. It’s good for your stomach.
65．All of my classmates attended the party yesterday e Mia. She caught a bad cold.
66．The sun rises in the e and sets in the west.
67．My brother p pop music while I like county music better.
68．Parents would be always p of everything good their children did.
69．Someone s my wallet on the bus, and now I couldn’t even pay my breakfast!
70．They became national h for saving people’s lives from the big fire.
第二节：书面表达（共1小题；满分15分）
71．假如你是李平，以下是你的美国朋友发给你的一封电子邮件，请你根据邮件内容给他回复。
Dear Li Ping, How is everything going I am going to be in China for a short study project this summer, and I’m busy learning Chinese these days. I find it difficult to do well. Can you give me some advice Also, I’m stressed out because of the heavy schoolwork. What can I do to relax myself I’m looking forward to your reply! Yours, Alex
注意：
1. 请回复邮件中所提及的所有问题，可适当发挥使行文通顺、连贯。
2. 邮件中不得出现真实姓名和学校名称。
3. 词数80左右。
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