厦门市翔安区2022—2023学年（上）八年级质量检查考试
英 语 答 题 卡
学校： 姓名：
班级： 座 号 ：
贴条形码区
注意事项
1．答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、班级、考场填写清楚，并认真核对
条形码上的姓名和准考证号。
2．选择题部分请按题号用2B铅笔填涂方框，修改时用橡皮擦干净，不 （正面朝上，切勿贴出虚线方框）
留痕迹。
3．非选择题部分请按题号用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔书写，否则作答
无效。要求字体工整、笔迹清晰。作图时，必须用2B铅笔，并描浓。 正确填涂 缺考标记
4．在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。
5．请勿折叠答题卡,保持字体工整、笔迹清晰、卡面清洁。
第一部分
1 [A] [B] [C] 5 [A] [B] [C] 9 [A] [B] [C] 13 [A] [B] [C] 17 [A] [B] [C] 21 [A] [B] [C]
2 [A] [B] [C] 6 [A] [B] [C] 10 [A] [B] [C] 14 [A] [B] [C] 18 [A] [B] [C] 22 [A] [B] [C]
3 [A] [B] [C] 7 [A] [B] [C] 11 [A] [B] [C] 15 [A] [B] [C] 19 [A] [B] [C] 23 [A] [B] [C]
4 [A] [B] [C] 8 [A] [B] [C] 12 [A] [B] [C] 16 [A] [B] [C] 20 [A] [B] [C] 24 [A] [B] [C]
25 [A] [B] [C] 29 [A] [B] [C] 33 [A] [B] [C] 37 [A] [B] [C] 41 [A] [B] [C] 45 [A] [B] [C]
26 [A] [B] [C] 30 [A] [B] [C] 34 [A] [B] [C] 38 [A] [B] [C] 42 [A] [B] [C] 46 [A] [B] [C]
27 [A] [B] [C] 31 [A] [B] [C] 35 [A] [B] [C] 39 [A] [B] [C] 43 [A] [B] [C] 47 [A] [B] [C]
28 [A] [B] [C] 32 [A] [B] [C] 36 [A] [B] [C] 40 [A] [B] [C] 44 [A] [B] [C]
第二部分
I. 听 音理解 第 三节：听短文，根据所听到的短文内容及要求完成表格，每空一词
48. 49. 50. 51. 52.
III. 阅读理解 第 二节：阅读D篇短文，完成表格
53. 54.
55. 56.
IV. 书面表达 第 一节： 连 词成句
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
I V. 书面表达 第 二节：完成句子
62.John,_______________________________________________________________________________________
63.How do you________________________________________________________________________________
64. S am, ___________________________________________________________________________on Saturday
65. I f you go to the party, you’ll_________________________________________________________________.
66.____________________________________________________________________________________________.
IV. 书面表达 第三节：短文填词
67. 68. 69. 70. 71.
72. 73. 74. 75. 76.
IV. 书面表达 第 四节：看图写句
77.
78.
79.
80.
IV. 书面表达 第五节：短文写作厦门市翔安区 2022-2023 学年（上）八年级质量检查考试
英 语 试 题
（试卷满分：150分；考试时间：120分钟）
考生注意：
本试卷分为两大部分，第一部分为选择题，请考生将答案用 2B 铅笔填涂在答题卡上；
第二部分为非选择题，请考生将答案用 0.5 毫米的黑色签字笔书写在答题卡上。
第一部分 (选择题)
I. 听音理解 (共三节，20 小题，每小题 1.5 分，满分 30 分)
第一节 听句子 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。
(每个句子读两遍)
1. A. B. C.
2. A. B. C.
3. A. B. C.
4. A. B. C.
5. A. B. C.
英语试题（第 1页，共 9 页）
第二节 听对话 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。
(每段对话读两遍)
听第 1段对话，回答第 6小题。
6. How was the weather in Chengdu
A. Sunny. B. Cloudy. C. Rainy.
听第 2段对话，完成第 7小题。
7. Who goes to bed early every day
A. The boy. B. The girl. C. The boy’s mother.
听第 3段对话，完成第 8小题。
8. Where is Frank going this Saturday
A. To the shopping center. B. To the museum. C. To the library.
听第 4段对话，完成第 9小题。
9. How often can David practice volleyball
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
听第 5段对话，完成第 10、11小题。
10. What color is John’s T-shirt
A. Black. B. Red. C. Yellow.
11. What is John like
A. Quiet. B. Shy. C. Outgoing.
听第 6段对话，完成第 12、13小题。
12. What does the girl want to buy
A. A guitar. B. A dictionary. C. A dress.
13. What is the boy’s New Year’s Resolution
A. To have a part-time job. B. To learn a new language. C. To take up a new hobby.
听第 7段对话，完成第 14、15小题。
14. What are the two speakers talking about
A. A robot show. B. A talent show. C. A talk show.
15. How will they go to the show
A. By bus. B. By subway. C. By bike.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
注意：请将该题的答案书写在答题卡的第二部分
第三节 听短文 根据所听到的短文内容及要求完成表格，每空一词。 (短文读三遍)
New Home for Pandas in Qatar(卡塔尔)
The pandas arrived in Doha(多哈) on October 19th. It was the 48.__________
Time time that pandas had been to the Middle East.
They will stay in Qatar for 49. ____________ years.
On 50. ____________ 17th, Doha’s panda house opened to the public.
Home
It is the new home for two pandas.
The pandas have Arab(阿拉伯的) names, which mean 51. ____________ in
Names
the sky.
The pandas enjoy their life in Doha. They have bamboo from China and can
Life
also eat carrots, 52. _____________ and traditional Chinese pancakes.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
英语试题（第 2页，共 9 页）
II.语言知识应用（共两节，20小题，每小题 1.5分，满分 30分）
第一节 单项选择 从每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的正确答案
（每小题 1.5分，满分 18分）
16. —Joan, what do you think of ________ TV series Bright Future（《县委大院》）
—It is so great that I want to watch them again.
A. the B. an C. a
17. —“Super Sketch Show 2”（《一年一度喜剧大赛 2》）was a hit show last year.
—That’s true. It was so ________ that it can make people forget about the stress.
A. boring B. meaningless C. relaxing
18. —Hey, Lisa. Do you like to sit together with your family and drink tea after meals
—Yes. In this way, I can get a taste of a ________ life and feel more relaxed.
A. slower B. faster C. more exciting
19. —Cindy, the Double 11, China’s biggest shopping festival, is over now. Did you buy ______
—Well, not much. Just some clothes.
A. something special B. anything special C. nothing special
20. —Mom, can I hang out with my friends this Friday night
—Of course you can ________ you finish your homework.
A. before B. unless C.if
21. —I often watch talk shows on TV. What about you, Judy
—I enjoy watching the news. I hope to ________ what’s going on around the world.
A. find out B. work out C. give out
22. —Where shall we have dinner tonight
—I don’t _________ what to eat. The food in Xiamen is delicious.
A. mind B. like C. stand
23. It’s important for us _________ hard in order to have a better life.
A. work B. to work C. working
24. —As 2023 comes, what would you like to say to your 2022
—I’m happy that I didn’t _________ halfway and finally found what I truly want.
A. give up B. put up C. get up
25. —Jack, how’s your life in China
—Wonderful. Studying in a foreign country is such a great __________.
A. preparation B. experience C. example
26. Peter read the story ___________ to find the answer to the question.
A. comfortably B. certainly C. carefully
27. —Why not have a clean-up day in our house every month
—_________. It’s a good way to keep the house clean and tidy.
A. Well, don’t worry B. I hope not C. That’s a good idea
英语试题（第 3页，共 9 页）
第二节 完形填空 从每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案
（每小题 1.5分，满分 12分）
Mr. Smith works in a hospital. His medical skills are good. People
like to go to see him, so he’s often 28 in the daytime. He always
hopes to have a good 29 at home. He lives in a building outside the
city. Most of his neighbors (邻居) are 30 in their houses at night.
31 Mike is not one of them. He moved there about a month ago. The
young man lives just upstairs. He likes 32 and bought a piano last
week. He works in his study in the daytime and always plays the piano
after dinner. However, he can’t play it very well and makes a lot of noise (噪音). Mr. Smith can’t
fall asleep. It makes him 33 . He often goes upstairs and tells Mike about it but the young
man soon 34 about it.
One day Mike was ill. He had to go to the 35 . Mr. Smith looked him over and said, “If
you stop playing the piano at night, you’ll soon be all right.” When the young man left, a nurse
asked, “Does playing the piano have anything to do with his recovery (康复), Mr. Smith ” “Yes,”
said Mr. Smith. “He’s one of my neighbors!”
28. A. busy B. free C. happy
29. A. meal B. sleep C. hobby
30. A. quiet B. lazy C. shy
31. A. And B. So C. But
32. A. sports B. music C. history
33. A. happy B. angry C. excited
34. A. forgets B. thinks C. knows
35. A. library B. supermarket C. hospital
III. 阅读理解（共两节，16小题，每小题 2分，满分 32分）
第一节 阅读以下 A、B、C三篇短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给 A、B、C三个选项中，
选出最佳答案（每小题 2分，满分 24分）
A
英语试题（第 4页，共 9 页）
36. What do we know about Grace Bruce
A. She was born in winter. B. She has an older sister. C. She was born at 4:00 p.m.
37. When does the dinner start at the party
A. At 10:40 a.m. B. At 4:00 p.m. C. At 7:30 p.m.
38. If you want to have some cakes and juice before 8:00 p.m., you can pay ________.
A. $8 B. $16 C. $24
39. If you want to join the party, you can ________.
A. write a letter B. send an email C. make a phone call
B
Do you worry that you might be wasting (浪费 ) food During
the COVID-19 pandemic, people around the world went hungry. But
then people came up with ways to help. One was to put fridges filled
with food outside.
But it started before COVID-19 began. In 2016, a restaurant
owner (店主) in Kochi, India thought of the idea late one night when
she saw a lady looking for food in a trash can (垃圾桶).
She was really sad because that night, her restaurant had made
lots of food and she didn’t give any to her.
Over in the UK, the charity, Hubbub, started The Community
Fridge Network. It supports (支持) groups running communal (公用
的 ) fridges across the country. Now, there are over 300 fridges in the UK. Hubbub has worked
with the supermarket Coop, to have 500 fridges by the end of 2023.
“A fridge is so often much more than a fridge,” said Hubbub’s official website. “Fridges
bring people together.”
40. People put fridges with food outside to __________.
A. keep the food fresh B. waste lots of food C. help hungry people
41. The trend of putting fridges outside started __________ COVID-19 began.
A. before B. after C. when
42. The restaurant owner was sad about ___________.
A. finding no food in a trash can B. giving no food to the lady C. making too much food
43. What does Hubbub want for this year
A. To set up another charity group.
B. To give about 300 fridges to other countries.
C. To have 500 communal fridges in the UK.
C
You might often use emojis (表情符号)when you talk to your
friends online. But did you know when emojis came into our lives
Before emojis, emoticons (颜文字 ) first appeared (出现 ).
Scott Fahlman was a teacher at Carnegie Mellon University, US.
On September 19th, 1982, he made history by posting (发布) “:-)”
online. Guinness World Records (吉尼斯世界纪录) called it the
“first digital emoticon”.
Over the past 40 years, emoticons and later emojis became
central to our online chats. GIFs and memes (表 情 包 ) also
英语试题（第 5页，共 9 页）
appeared. Now there are 3,600 emojis for us to show our feelings, according to CNN.
Emojis are like our body language online. When we can’t find the right words, emojis can
help. They make our chats more effective (有效的). According to a 2017 study, emojis help us get
the same happiness from online talks that we get from talking in person. Our brain (大脑) “sees”
them as language.
Emojis change, too! Unicode brings new versions (版本 ) emojis every year. And it cares
about race(种族), gender (性别) and others. In 2015, for example, it brought out emojis with different
skin tones. In 2016, emojis about different jobs came out, with women’s versions of them.
44. Which of the following were the first to come into our lives
A. emojis B. emoticons C. memes
45. What does the word “central” in Paragraph 3 mean
A. easy B. careful C. important
46. What does Paragraph 4 tell us
A. Emojis can help our online talks go well.
B. Words can show our feelings better than emojis.
C. Emojis work better than body language.
47. What do we know from the passage
A. New versions of emojis come out every year.
B. Using emojis makes it hard to learn new words.
C. Different groups of people should use different emojis.
第二部分（非选择题）
第二节 阅读 D篇短文，结合图片提示，完成表格，每空不超过五个词。
（每小题 2分，满分 8分）
D
Many of us want to keep thin and healthy. But do you really know how Here are some new
studies. They show that sleeping may help lose weight (体重), but eating less may not!
Less sleep, fatter legs and arms
People without enough sleep are fatter, according to a new study from Nutrients. Scientists
divided (分类) sleep time into three types: short sleep (less than 7 hours a day), normal sleep (7 to
9 hours), and long sleep (over 9 hours). Then they studied 9,413 people from the US. Results show
that, comparedwith (对比) normal sleepers, short sleepers have more fat on their legs and arms!
Dinner is important
Many people don’t eat dinner to lose weight. But scientists at Osaka University, Japan, said
this might not be the answer. They did a study with 20,000 university students. Then they found
that if people don’t eat dinner, it’s easier for them to put on weight. One reason (原因), scientists
said, might be that people without dinner are hungrier, so they eat more during the day.
Mukbang makes you eat more
If you want to lose weight, stop watching mukbang (吃播)! In a new study, scientists asked
people to watch a cooking or nature television show. They found that those who watched the
cooking program ate more chocolate, compared to the nature program.
Scientists said that by looking at delicious food, people will get more ghrelin (胃饥饿素) in
their blood(血液). This gives people a stronger appetite (胃口)and they will then eat more.
英语试题（第 6页，共 9 页）
Here are some studies that may help you 53.______________ more easily.
People 54.______________ are fatter.
Short sleepers have more fat on their legs and arms than normal sleepers.
If people don’t eat dinner, it’s easier for them to 55.______________.
People without dinner might be hungrier, so they eat more during the day.
People who watch the cooking program ate more chocolate than that watch the
nature program.
People will get more ghrelin in their blood by looking at 56.______________.
This gives people a stronger appetite and they will then eat more.
IV. 书面表达（共五节，满分 58分）
第一节 连词成句 重新排序所给词汇，组成正确的句式表达（每小题 2分，满分 10分）
57. robots, people, will, have( )
______________________________________________________________________________
58. movie, what’s, theater, best, the ( )
______________________________________________________________________________
59. housework, often, help, they, with (.)
______________________________________________________________________________
60. outgoing, am, sister, my, than, I, more (.)
______________________________________________________________________________
61. going, am, I, study, science, computer, to (.)
______________________________________________________________________________
第二节 完成句子 根据语用提示，完成句子（每小题 2分，满分 10分）
62. 你想咨询 John假期去了哪里，可以这样问：
John, ________________________________________________________________________
63. 你想了解制作香蕉奶昔的方法，可以这样问：
How do you __________________________________________________________________
64. 你想邀请 Sam参加周六的生日会，可以这样问：
Sam, ______________________________________________________________ on Saturday
65. 你向 Sam承诺若来参加聚会，会度过愉快时光，可以这样说：
If you go to the party, you’ll ______________________________________________________.
66. 当你觉得对方主意不错时，可以这样说：
_____________________________________________________________________________.
英语试题（第 7页，共 9 页）
第三节 短文填词 根据语境或具体提示填空，完成短文（每小题 1.5分，满分 15分）
Playing mahjong (麻将 ) has become a new way of making
friends in the Western world. Four Chinese American started a
mahjong club 67.________ New York City to bring local Chinese
American together. It teaches its members how to play mahjong
68.________/w ns/ a month in China Town. But now the
69.________/ɡe m/ has become popular outside of the Chinese
American community (群体).
New York TikTok user, Alex Mutammara, 70.________ (join) the club. “The coolest way
that I’ve made 71.________ (friend) in New York City is in the mahjong club,” said Mutammara
in one of his videos. “It’s super beginner-friendly (对新手友好的 ) and everyone is really
72.________/na s/.”
New Yorkers also play mahjong outdoors. In Bryant Park, it’s easy to see four New
Yorkers 73.________(sit) around at the mahjong corner.
Gregg Swain has been 74.________ American mahjong lover for about 10 years. She
co-authored (合著 ) a book called Mah Jongg: The Art of the Game. “I think mahjong is the
75.________(much) popular game in the USA 76.________ we are all looking for ways to escape
(逃离) from our worries,” Swain said.
第四节 看图写句 根据所给图片和提示词，写出正确的句式表达（每小题 2分，满分 8分）
77. run, fast 78. there, future 79. mother, weekends 80. want, grow
77. ____________________________________________________________________________
78. ____________________________________________________________________________
79. ____________________________________________________________________________
80. ____________________________________________________________________________
英语试题（第 8页，共 9 页）
第五节 短文写作 根据所给要求，写一篇 80词左右的短文（满分 15分）
近期，《21世纪英文报》开辟了“运动与健康”专栏。假如你是李华，请根据下图文
字提示，向专栏投稿，畅谈你的做法与看法。
注意事项：
1. 必须包含图中所有提示信息，可适当发挥；
2. 意思清楚，表达通顺，行文连贯，书写规范；
3. 请勿在文中使用真实的姓名和校名。
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
试题结束，请认真检查！
英语试题（第 9页，共 9 页）厦门市翔安区 2022-2023 学年（上）八年级质量检查考试
英语参考答案
1-5 BACCB 6-10 ABCBB 11-15 CABAC
16-20 ACABC 21-25 AABAB 26-27 CC 28-32 ABACB 33-35 BAC
36-39 ACAC 40-43 CABC 44-47 BCAA
* 下列主观题可能存在多种答案，应尽量减少不影响交际功能的非关键性错误的扣分。
48. first 49. 15 50. November 51. stars 52. apples
53. lose weight
54. without enough sleep / who don’t get enough sleep / who don’t sleep enough
55. put on weight
56. delicious food
57. Will people have robots
58. What’s the best movie theater
59. They often help with housework.
60. I am more outgoing than my sister.
61. I am going to study computer science.
62. where did you go on vacation
63. make a banana milk shake
64. can you come to my birthday party
65. have a good/great time
66. Sounds like a good idea
67. in 68. once 69. game 70. joined 71. friends
72. nice 73. sitting 74. an 75. most 76. because
77. Bob runs faster than Tom.
78. There will be more cars in the future.
79. My mother goes shopping on weekends.
80. He wants to be a soccer player when he grows up.
短文写作：One possible version:
Sports are really good for us. They can help us keep fit and stay healthy.
In my spare time, I usually play badminton. It’s very easy for beginners to learn. Playing badminton
can helpme forget my worries. Moreover, playing badminton makesme feel more energetic.
I usually play with my coach Sylvia. We often play badminton in the gym. She has taught me
a lot about the easy ways to play it. By playing badminton, I know we need to try hard to succeed.
Giving up easily will get us nowhere. Although I cannot play it well now, I believe if I keep
practicing badminton, I will get better at it.
第一档（13-15 分）：能清楚地表述自己的观点和想法；语言准确、丰富、流畅，富有个性
和说服力；基本无语法错误；
第二档（9-12分）： 能清楚地表述自己的观点和想法；行文比较自然，但语言表达较平淡，
个性化和说服力较一般，且存在少量语法错误；
第三档（5-8 分）： 观点表述不够鲜明，比较缺乏说服力；同时各种语言用法错误较多；
第四档（1-4 分）： 内容比较空洞或不切题，词汇和句式用法错误很多。
英语参考答案及听力录音稿 （第 1页，共 3页）
厦门市翔安区 2022-2023 学年（上）八年级质量检查考试
英语听力录音稿
* 下面是听力试听时间：
M: Welcome to my new home, Maria.
W: Thanks, Bill. Where is your bedroom
M: It’s on the second floor.
W: Is there a computer in your bedroom
M: No, there isn’t. But there is one in the study.
W: How often do you use the computer
M: Only once a week. My parents allow me to use it on Saturday evenings.
W: Have you ever done shopping on the Internet
M: No, never. But my mother likes shopping online. She bought a camera for me last week. It’s
really nice.
W: Can I have a look
M: Sure. Let’s go upstairs.
* 听力试听结束，听力考试现在开始。
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第一节 听句子 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。
(每个句子读两遍)
1. I often have some yogurt after lunch.
2. Mike wants to be a doctor in the future.
3. Lisa takes piano lessons twice a week.
4. We went on a trip to Shanghai on July 3rd.
5. It’s really relaxing to spend time on the beach.
第二节 听对话 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。
(每段对话读两遍)
听第 1段对话，回答第 6小题。
W: Eric, did it rain when you were on vacation in Chengdu
M: No. It was always sunny during our stay. How lucky!
听第 2段对话，回答第 7小题。
W: I always go to bed before ten o’clock.
M: Oh, that’s early. My mother often tells me to go to sleep early, but it’s difficult for me.
听第 3段对话，回答第 8小题。
W:Would you like to go climbing with me this Saturday, Frank
M: Sorry, but I need to go to the library with my cousin.
听第 4段对话，回答第 9小题。
M: I want to make the volleyball team this term. Can you help me
W: Sure, David. You can practice with us every Tuesday and Thursday.
听第 5段对话，回答第 10、11小题。
M: Anna, do you know the two boys over there
W: Yes. The boy in a black jacket is Paul. The one in a red T-shirt is John.
M: Are they brothers They look almost the same.
W: Yes, they are. But in fact, they are quite different. Paul is quiet and he likes reading. John is
more outgoing and he is good at sports.
英语参考答案及听力录音稿 （第 2页，共 3页）
M: Oh, I see.
听第 6段对话，回答第 12、13小题。
M: What’s your New Year’s Resolution
W: I’m going to learn the guitar. I will buy a guitar of my own at the end of the year.
M: How are you going to do that
W: I’m going to have a part-time job.
M: Sounds like a good plan.
W: What about you, Larry
M: I’m going to learn a foreign language.
W: Cool. You always try to improve yourself.
M: Well, there is no end to learning.
听第 7段对话，回答第 14、15小题。
M: Helen, a robot show will be in Xiamen Science Museum next week. Would you like to watch it
with me
W: Wow, what can we see at the show
M: There will be different kinds of robots. Some can even play kung fu.
W: Sounds cool. When is the show
M: From March 3rd to 10th. When are you free
W: Hmm… How about the 5th It’s Sunday.
M: All right. And how shall we get there By bus or by subway
W: It will be sunny next week. Let’s go there by bike.
M: Good idea. See you then.
第三节 听短文 根据所听到的短文内容及要求完成表格，每空一词。 (短文读三遍)
Soccer fans can not only enjoy the World Cup games in Doha, the capital of Qatar, but also
say hello to pandas from China.
The pandas arrived in Doha on October 19th. It was the first time that pandas had been to the
Middle East. They will stay in Qatar for 15 years.
On November 17th, Doha’s first panda house opened to the public. It is the new home of two
Chinese pandas — the 3-year-old female Si Hai and the 4-year-old male Jing Jing. They also have
Arab names — Suhail for Jing Jing and Soraya for Si Hai. These two namesmean stars in the sky.
The pandas enjoy their life in Doha. Their house was built with air-conditioning. They have
bamboo from China and can also eat carrots, apples and traditional Chinese pancakes.
英语参考答案及听力录音稿 （第 3页，共 3页）

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