2024—2025 学年第一学期学业水平质量检测
英语试题
注意事项：
1. 本试题分第Ⅰ卷和第Ⅱ卷两部分。第Ⅰ卷为选择题（100 分）；第Ⅱ卷为非选择题
（50 分）；全卷满分 150 分。考试时间为 120 分钟。
2. 请将第Ⅰ卷、第Ⅱ卷两部分答案填写在答题卡上，填在试卷或其它位置不得分。第
Ⅰ卷选择题答案用 2B 铅笔涂写。第Ⅱ卷必须使用 0.5 毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡上题号所
提示的答题区域作答。
选择题部分 共 100 分
I．听力测试 (30 分)
A）听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。（7.5 分）
1. A. May I use your ruler B. Is it your cup C. Did you wash your shirt
2. A. Turn right here. B. Let’s make a word card! C. Don’t eat in class.
3. A. I forgot your birthday. B. She’s really funny. C. He hardly watches TV.
4. A. What’s his favorite show B. What day is it today C. What about your vacation
5. A. It’s half past five. B. I’m sorry for what I said. C. He studies harder than me.
B）在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出
能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。（7.5分）
6. What is the boy going to do on Sunday
A. Have piano lessons. B. Go for a picnic. C. Cheer up sick children.
7. How much will the man pay for the bananas
A. Five yuan. B. Fifteen yuan. C. Twelve yuan.
8. Why can’t Lisa go to the movies
A. Because she has to look after her sister.
B. Because she will take violin lessons.
C. Because she doesn’t like it at all.
9. How long does Sonia practice tennis every day
A. For an hour B. For two hours. C. For three hours.
10. What are the two speakers going to do this afternoon
A. See a policeman. B. Do some shopping. C. Go to a movie.
C）在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答
所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍（听对话前，你将有 40 秒的读题时间；听完后，
你将有 40 秒的答题时间。）（7.5 分）
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11. Where could the dialogue happen
A. In a shop. B. In a library. C. In a hospital.
12. Why did the young man go to see the woman
A. He felt unhappy most of the day.
B. He felt difficult to fall asleep.
C. He didn’t know where to begin his talk.
13. How long has the young man been like this
A. About two years. B. About three weeks. C. About six months.
14. In what season did the young man feel worse
A. In spring. B. In autumn. C. In winter.
15. What did the doctor ask the young man to do
A. To take some medicine.
B. To burn away his worries.
C. To take more exercises.
D) 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答
所给问题的正确答案。短文听两遍。（听短文前，你将有 40 秒的读题时间；听完后，你将
有 40 秒的答题时间。）（7.5 分）
16. When was the party
A. On Friday night. B. On Saturday night. C. On Sunday night.
17. Who did Alice ask for help
A. Her mother. B. Her cousin. C. Her sister
18. How old is Molly now
A. Seventeen. B. Eighteen. C. Nineteen.
19. How long did Molly save up money to buy the dress
A. For one month. B. For two months. C. For six months.
20. What happened at the party
A. The dress got dirty. B. The dress got broken. C. The dress got wet.
II. 阅读理解 阅读下列短文，从每题 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出一个能回答所提问
题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。（每小题 2 分，共 40 分）
A
I went on holiday with my friends in a fishing area. There I saw a fish was caught and it
hopped (跳跃) out of the water’s surface, making every effort to escape（逃脱）. I could see that
the fisherman was good at fishing. He left the fish struggling（挣扎） in the water so as to work
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off its energy. Right at that moment, I held my breath. With every move it made, I became more
and more nervous.
Finally, the fish ran out of power and it was caught in the fishing net. When it was thrown
out of the net, it again started to struggle with all of its strength. The fisherman did nothing but
wait for it to use up all its strength. The fish stopped hopping in only a few minutes. My feelings
were mixed. I admire it for its strength and braveness, but at the same time felt sorry about its
sad ending. Suddenly, I heard a sound of something dropping into the water. Yes, the fish
succeeded in saving itself. After pretending (假装) that it had run out of all of its strength, it
went back into the river.
I cheered when the fish made it. Of course not every fish is as lucky as this one. I’m deeply
moved by how such a little fish tried so hard to save its own life. Why can’t we humans value
our life just as these little animals do
21. Where did the story happen
A. Near the lake. B. Near the river. C. Near my home. D. Near my sea.
22. How did the writer feel when the fish ran away
A. Nervous. B. Sorry. C. Happy. D. Disappointed.
23. According to Paragraph 2, the right order of the following is ________.
a. A fish was caught. b. It went back into the river.
c. The fish stopped hopping. d. The fisherman left the fish struggling.
A. a-b-c-d B. c-a-b-d C. a-c-d-b D. a-d-c-b
24. What does the underlined phrase “made it” in the last paragraph refer to
A. The fish escaped. B. The fish struggled. C. The fish died. D. The fish got hurt.
25. What does the writer want to tell us
A. The fish was so lucky that it could escape.
B. The fish was strong enough to escape itself.
C. We should value our life just as the fish did.
D. We can be good at something if we keep on it.
B
It was after midnight. Clifford Saint Jean was in the bedroom at home. He woke up by the
big noise next door. He looked outside. He saw the house next to his was on fire. On the second
floor, the family were trapped (困住).
A mother with a teenager and a 5-year-old child was shouting for help inside the burning
(燃烧的) home. They were unable to get out of the house because there was thick smoke. The
only way out of the burning house was through the window. Thinking fast, Clifford ran into his
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backyard (后院) and pulled an old bed. He quickly put it under the woman’s window.
“Come down, come down,” Clifford called up to the family. He told the mother that he
would catch the child. In an act of trust and sadness, the mother dropped her child out of the
window. He fell straight into Clifford’s arms. Moments later, the mother and teenager jumped
too. They landed right on the bed.
The family were all safe. The mother was so grateful that she couldn’t stop thanking
Clifford for helping. Clifford said he was “happy” he could help the family get away from the
fire.
26. What was Clifford doing when the fire broke out
A. He was sleeping B. He was watching TV.
C. He was looking outside. D. He was listening to music.
27. How many people were trapped on the second floor
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.
28. They could leave the second floor only by ________.
A. running down the stairs B. jumping out of the window
C. running to Clifford’s backyard D. lying on an old bed
29. What does the underlined word “grateful” in Paragraph 4 mean
A. happy. B. lucky. C. careful. D. thankful.
30. What’s the best title for the passage
A. Scared Mother and Her Children B. A Brave Man and the Old Bed
C. A Good Neighbor Saved a Family D. A Neighbor Reported a Fire to Police
C
Spain is famous for its tomato festival, called La Tomatina. It happens in a small town Bunol
on the last Wednesday of August every year. During the festival there are all kinds of activities, but
the most exciting part is the tomato fight. It takes place at the end of long celebration (庆祝). You
are encouraged to throw tomatoes in the fight. There’re many stories about how the festival began.
One of the stories goes that during the 1940’s, some friends started a tomato fight, while another
story is about a local band. Anyway, everyone in Bunol seems to have a different story.
Before the tomato fight, there are parades (游行), music al bands, street parties and so on. On
the day of the fight, shopkeepers cover their windows and doors in order to keep away from the
tomato fight. At the same time, thousands of tourists and local people come to the town square
together. Then large trucks (卡车) full of tomatoes arrive. From the back of the large trucks, a great
town band start to throw tomatoes at others. Then the crowds fight back, throwing the tomatoes at
anything and anyone. Soon the streets are in the sea of red tomato juice.
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Everyone is supposed to obey a small number of rules: You must squash (压烂) the tomato
before throwing it and you are allowed to throw nothing but tomatoes.
It is usually over in less than half an hour. Everyone then sets off to the river to clear up.
Sounds like fun!
31. The most exiting activity of the festival is _________.
A. parades B. street parties C. the tomato fight D. the music show
32. The stories about how the festival began are _________ according to the passage.
A. very clear B. rather sad C. very famous D. quite different
33. On the fight day, _________.
A. people fight for the whole day
B. people can throw everything
C. sho.pkeepers are not allowed to watch people fight D. lots of tourists and local people take part in the fight 34. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage A. The festival happens on the last Wednesday of August every year. B. On the fight day, shopkeepers cover their windows and doors ‘x C The fight day usually lasts half an hour. D. Everyone is supposed to obey some rules on the fight day. 35. The best title of the passage can be “_________”. A. Travel in Spain B. The Tomato Festival in Spain C. The History of Spain D. Rules of the Tomato Festival D As Earth’s neighbor, Mars has a similar environment to Earth. For years, humans are
exploring the Red Planet and hope to live on it one day.
On July 23, 2020, China launched its first Mars probe (探测器). It is called Tianwen-1. The
name comes from the poem Tianwen. Qu Yuan, a famous poet of the Warring States Period wrote
it. The probe landed on the surface (表面) of Mars on May 15, 2021. China is the second country
in the world to make it. It was a great success.
▲ As we know, Mars is very far from Earth. Every 26 months, Mars is closest to
Earth. This is the best time to launch a Mars probe. Doing this can save energy, time and money. If
we don’t launch the probe in 2020, we’ll have to wait another two years.
A probe has to fly a very long way before landing on Mars. Because the signal from Earth is
weak, the lander has to land by itself. “Each step had only one chance. If there was any mistake,
the landing would fail.” Geng Yan, an official from the China National Space Administration said.
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The Mars probe has three parts—the orbiter, the lander and the rover (火星车). Within a
week after the landing, the Mars rover, Zhurong, will begin working. Zhurong is named after the
god of fire in ancient Chinese stories. It is the sixth rover on Mars, following five others launched
by the United States. If everything goes well, Zhurong will work for at least three months and
carry out scientific studies on Mars like taking pictures and videos of Mars, finding out if there is
any water or ice under the surface of Mars and checking the temperature or climate on it.
“A larger probe will set off for the planet sometime around 2030 to take samples and return
them to Earth.” a CNSA officials said.
36. How long is it since China launched Tianwen-1
A. About 2020 years. B. About 23 years. C. About 15 years. D. About 5 years.
37. What can we learn from Paragraph 2
A. Qu Yuan named Chinese first Mars probe Tianwen-1.
B. Tianwen was a famous poet of the Warring States Period.
C. Tianwen-1 flew for about 10 months before landing on Mars.
D. It is the second time for Chinese Mars probes to land on Mars.
38. Which sentence can be best put into ▲ in Paragraph 3
A. How does China launch the Mars probe
B. Where does the name Tianwen-1 come from
C. Why was 2020 chosen
D. Who launched the probe in 2020
39. The following statements are true except ________.
A. the rover is part of a Mars probe
B. it is difficult for a probe to land on Mars
C. six rovers have landed on Mars successfully so far
D. Tianwen-1 will take samples from Mars back to earth
40. Why do human beings keep exploring Mars
A. It is a big and red planet. B. It is Earth’s nearest neighbor.
C. It has good living environment. D. It may be another home for humans.
Ⅲ. 阅读理解七选五 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。
选项中有两项为多余选项。（每小题 2 分，共 10 分）
The Lunar New Year, or Spring Festival, was officially listed as a UN floating holiday in its
calendar of conferences (会议) and meetings on December 22th, 2023. _____41_____ About
one-fifth of humanity (人类) celebrates this festival in different ways.
The first day of the first lunar month is Spring Festival, the beginning of a new year for
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China. It is China’s biggest day for family reunion. It is usually a fifteen-day celebration.
_____42_____ The cleaning of the home is thought to sweep away bad luck from the previous
(先前的) year and bring good luck for the coming year. The color red is everywhere during the
Spring Festival. They decorate (装饰) their homes with pieces of red paper. People wear red, too.
_____43_____
On New Year’s Eve, the family members get together and have a big meal. We often eat
dumplings. At midnight, fireworks (烟花) are let off to welcome the New Year. The whole
country bursts with the thundering (雷鸣般的) joyful noise of fire crackers (鞭炮) as every
family joins. _____44_____ Gifts are exchanged and older people give younger ones hongbao,
often called “lucky money”. They think it brings good luck.
______45______ It’s the Lantern Festival. A popular activity at the Lantern Festival is the
guessing of riddles (谜语), which are written on paper and placed on the lantern. Families will
also light lanterns, which symbolize the brightness of spring.
A. They think red will bring them a bright future.
B. Lanterns in different shapes and sizes are seen everywhere.
C. Many countries list the Spring Festival as a national holiday.
D. The end of the Spring Festival is marked on the fifteenth day.
E. Days before the Spring Festival, families will clean their houses.
F. Don’t borrow or lend money on Spring Festival.
G. The first days of the Spring Festival are spent visiting family and friends.
IV. 补全对话 从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。（5分）
Sarah: Hey, Steve. Summer holiday is coming. 46
Steve: Of course. I’ve decided to volunteer.
Sarah: 47 What would you like to do
Steve: I love drawing so I plan to teach kids to draw in poor villages in Qinghai.
Sarah: 48 But I’ve already promised my grandma to visit her.
Steve: That’s OK. Maybe you can do something else if you want to help.
Sarah: I have no idea. 49
Steve: What about giving away some books and toys
Sarah: Wonderful! 50
Steve: Next Friday will be OK.
Sarah: See you then.
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46. A. Do you want to keep a pet B. Do you have any plans
C. Do you run every morning D. Do you like pop music
47. A. Sounds great. B. Take it easy.
C. That’s all right. D. Never mind.
48. A. Let’s go to the park. B. Can you teach me
C. I want to join you. D. Is it very difficult
49. A. Are you leaving next week B. Will anyone go with you
C. Are you going on foot D. Can you give me some advice
50. A. When should I get ready B. Where should I go
C. What should I do D. How should I help you
V. 完形填空 阅读短文，从每题 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空
白处的最佳答案。（15 分）
I sat watching Dad one afternoon while Mom shopped. He was unable to 51____
after his stroke (中风). As he sat in his wheelchair with his head hanging down, I wondered what
he was 52 about.
Sometimes he’d get so 53 with himself and with me because all he saw were his
weak points, but what I saw was different. I tried to remind him of all he had done before and
____54 him to do what he could still do. Although he’d get 55 when I pushed
him to exercise his legs, it was nothing to me——all I wished was that he could stand up.
So in another 56 I quietly said to him, “Hey, Dad, I remember, ” he said
____57 . “You got to the middle of the street and stopped 58 .”He smiled.
Ahh, there’s my dad, I thought. Seeing the look of 59 on his face, I continued.
“Remember, I was so 60 that I couldn’t move. You walked with me from one side of
the street to the other, 61 your strong arms holding on to me, guiding me. With your
warm 62 and smile, you repeated (重复), “It’s okay, I 63 . You opened up
my world, Dad, helping me to be all I could be.”
And 64 we talked about what happened that day, he held his head up higher. And
soon 65 was ready to exercise. With a warm voice and a smile, I said, “It’s okay,
you’re doing fine.”
51. A. hear B. walk C. speak D. see
52. A. talking B. arguing C. reading D. thinking
53. A. brave B. strict C. upset D. honest
54. A. encouraged B. promised C. controlled D. invited
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55. A. happy B. sick C. amazed D. angry
56. A. try B. search C. journey D. accident
57. A. leg B. hand C. head D. arm
58. A. simply B. suddenly C. heavily D. recently
59. A. joy B. peace C. satisfaction D. surprise
60. A. interested B. excited C. shocked D. scared
61. A. for B. by C. between D. with
62. A. heart B. voice C. blood D. spirit
63. A. cheered it up B. checked it out C. worked it out D. picked it up
64. A. when B. although C. unless D. until
65. A. I B. he C. she D. it
非选择题部分 共 50 分
VI. 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。（15分）
In ancient times, there was a great musician called Yu Boya. He was very good at
playing the qin. One day, Boya traveled by boat when it began to rain 66._________(heavy).
He was excited 67._________(see) green mountains and clear water. He took up the qin and
began to play.
The music was so beautiful. A man on the bank shouted, “What 68.___________great
performance it is!’’ The man’s name was Zhong Ziqi. Boya invited him 69.__________the
boat and played the qin for him.
Boya played to show 70.__________(he) love for the mountains. Ziqi said, “Wow, it
seems that the mountains are just before my eyes.”
Boya then played another one. Ziqi said, “The music is as 71.___________(wonderful)
as the great rivers!”
Boya was very 72.___________(surprise) at Ziqi’s understanding. He said, “I
73.___________(travel) all over the world to find a true friend for a long time. And you are
really my true friend!” They made a plan to meet again at the same place the next year.
The next year, Boya learned that Ziqi died of an 74.__________(ill). He was very sad.
He took up the qin and played the music of The High Mountains and Flowing Water. After
that, Boya broke the qin and never played again 75.___________nobody in this world could
understand him like Ziqi.
Since then, people use “high mountains and flowing rivers” to describe a true friend like
Zhong Ziqi or wonderful music such as the works created by Yu Boya.
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VII.书面表达（35 分）
第一部分 情境运用 根据所提供的图画情景，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。（10 分）
76. A: What’s the matter with Ben
B: ______________________________________________.
77. A:______________________________________________
B: No, he wasn’t. John was helping his mom making dinner when the
rainstorm came.
78. A: _____________________________________________
B: For ten years.
79. A: How does your brother celebrate the Spring Festival
B:______________________________________________.
80. A: ____________________________________________
B: Sure, go along this road and turn left. It’s beside the bank.
第二部分 写作（25 分）
中国传统节日是中国文化的重要组成部分。春节、端午节、中秋节等都体现了我们对
中国文化的传承。但是随着时代的变化，我们也有了新的庆祝方式。比如、很多人都选择
在传统节日里全家出游，也有人做志愿者活动来庆祝，还有的人去博物馆、图书馆或文化
展。请你结合生活中的经历，写一篇短文。
内容包括：1.你喜欢的庆祝中国传统节日的方式（传统方式还是新颖的方式）；
2.分享一次庆祝传统节日的经历；
3.如何让外国人更多的了解中国传统节日。
注意事项：1.要求语句通顺、意思连贯、符合题意；
2.词数 100 个左右，开头已给出，不计入总词数；
3.文中不得出现真实的人名、地名等信息。
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
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选择题部分 共100分
I．听力测试 (每小题1.5分，共30分)
1—5 CBCAB 6—10 CBABB 11—15 CAACC 16—20 BCACA
II.阅读理解（每小题2分，共40分）
21—25 BCDAC 26—30 ABBDC 31—35CDDCB 36-40 DCCDD
Ⅲ. 七选五 （每小题2分，共10分）
41—45 CEAGD
Ⅳ. 补全对话（每小题1分，共5分）
46—50 BACDA
Ⅴ.完型填空
51—55BDCAD 56—60 ACBAD 61—65 DBCAB
非选择题部分 共50分
VI. 阅读填空 （每小题1.5分，共15分）
66. heavily 67. to see 68. a 69. to/onto 70. his
71. wonderful 72. surprised 73. have traveled 74. illness 75. because
Ⅶ. 书面表达 （35分）
第一部分 情境运用（10分）
每个句子表达完全准确，无语言错误，2分；
有错误但关键信息正确，1分；
词不达意，关键信息错误，0分
学生答案合理即可
1. He has a stomachache.
2. Was John taking a shower when the rainstorm came
3. How long have you had this scarf
4. He celebrates the Spring Festival by setting off fireworks.
5. Could you please tell me how to get to the amusement park./Could you please tell me how I can get to the amusement park.
第二部分 写作（25分）
（1）本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
（2）评分时，先根据学生写作的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来 衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
（3）评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
（4）拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
（5）如果书写较差，以致影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
书面表达可分为五个等级:
(1)21－25分：短文内容符合所给提示。语句通顺，语言丰富，书写工整，语法错 误较少（1－2处），字数符合要求。
(2) 16－20分：短文内容基本符合所给提示。语句通顺，语言较丰富，书写工整， 3－4处语法错误，字数基本符合要求。
(3) 11－15分：短文内容基本符合所给提示。语句尚通顺，书写较工整，语法错误 较多，字数在80词左右。
(4) 6－10分：短文内容不太符合所给提示。语句不够通顺，语法错误较多，书写一
般，字数在60词以下。
(5) 5分以下：明显遗漏要点，写了一些无关的内容。语法结构或词汇方面的错误 较多，词不达意。抄袭试题文段判0分。
参考范文
When the traditional festival comes，everyone is excited about it. The meaning of the festivals is remembered by the old generation，but some young people may not know it. I think it is also good to celebrate a traditional festival in a new way.
During the Mid-autumn Festival，a student in my class shot a video to ask some old people something about Mid-autumn festival. Another student shared some TV series telling about the myth of Hou Yi and his wife. I learned many Chinese myths and legends from the shows. Not only did we enjoy the festival，but we learned the cultural background.
More and more foreigners are interested in Chinese traditional festivals, We can teach them famous great old poems related to these festivals，sharing some old stories and legends with them. At the same time，we can introduce some great movies and videos to them. They can know about Chinese festivals in more interesting ways.

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